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i mean if ur life is in danger not saying iv killd some 1

2007-02-07 15:02:25 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

7 answers

In the Hebrew Scriptures the Law permitted self-defense but restricted an individual’s right to fight for his property. Bloodguilt came upon a person who, though catching a thief in the act of breaking into his home, killed the lawbreaker in the daytime. This was evidently because thievery did not carry the death penalty, and the thief could be identified and brought to justice. At night, however, it would be difficult to see what one was doing and to ascertain the intentions of an intruder. Therefore, the person killing an intruder in the dark was considered guiltless.—Ex 22:2, 3.

In the first century C.E. those seeking to kill Jesus were identified as ‘children of the Devil,’ the first manslayer. (Joh 8:44) The scribes and Pharisees decorated the tombs of righteous ones, claiming that they would not have been sharers in putting the prophets to death. Yet they manifested the same murderous spirit toward the Son of God.—Mt 23:29-32; compare Mt 21:33-45; 22:2-7; Ac 3:14, 15; 7:51, 52.

Hatred is equated with murder. Murders issue forth from the heart of an individual. (Mt 15:19; Mr 7:21; compare Ro 1:28-32.) Therefore, anyone hating his brother would be a manslayer, a murderer. (1Jo 3:15) Christ Jesus also associated murder with wrong attitudes such as an individual’s continuing wrathful with his brother, speaking abusively to him, or wrongly judging and condemning him as a “despicable fool.” (Mt 5:21, 22) Such hatred may lead to actual murder. It appears that the words of James 5:6 “You have condemned, you have murdered the righteous one,” may be understood in this light.
Wicked rich persons who showed hatred for genuine disciples of God’s Son and took oppressive action against them did in some instances actually murder these Christians. As treatment accorded to his brothers is considered by Christ Jesus to be meted out to him, these persons had also figuratively murdered him, and James evidently also had that in mind.—Compare Jas 2:1-11; Mt 25:40, 45; Ac 3:14, 15.

2007-02-08 02:06:15 · answer #1 · answered by hollymichal 6 · 0 0

Well, if you're the type of person that believes in the fundamental concept of sin, then yes, but if you ask God for forgiveness then you're absolved. It's a weird equation but it makes sense to a lot of people.

Personally I think killing someone would be morally wrong but not a sin in the fundamental sense...

And there are circumstances, too. If someone was harming you or your child or loved one, then killing them in defense might be justified. Also, killing someone who asked you to because they were in pain (assisted suicide) has a place, too, though a lot of people think it is a sin.

2007-02-07 15:07:20 · answer #2 · answered by Voodoo Lady 3 · 0 0

Well the word in the bible can also be translated at "murder" which means to kill an innocent person.

2007-02-07 15:05:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

As long as it was a non-believer it's OK according to the Christian bible.

2007-02-07 16:36:14 · answer #4 · answered by Robby 2 · 0 0

if its in self defense and you aren't "murdering" him, then i do not believe it is a sin.

2007-02-07 15:05:21 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

depends on the motive and the crime

2007-02-07 15:04:41 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

depends on how u look at it

2007-02-07 15:09:52 · answer #7 · answered by pulse 3 · 0 0

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