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Let's say a person with normal vision (not requiring a prescription to see clearly) were to wear prescription contact lenses to create a Myopian (NearSightedness) effect, and then wore another prescription in glasses over the contacts to enable that person to see clearly again. Since the end effect would essentially be the same as when that person began with normal vision, would this person's eyes become dependent on the contacts and/or glasses, OR would the prescription in the glasses cancel out the prescription in the contact lenses?

2007-02-07 08:24:07 · 3 answers · asked by David S 1 in Health Other - Health

3 answers

Your conclusion is correct ... they would cancel each other. The math is simple. Call the perfect eye...sees clearly at distance while at rest...zero. To see at near the eye has to focus in...it adds plus power. That is what you propose with contacts...wearing plus lenses to produce artificial myopia. You would then need minus lenses in glasses, of the same power as the contacts, to bring you back to zero. When you are younger than 40 your eyes do all that automatically. Doing what you propose would have no purpose and it would also have no effect on your eye function or health

2007-02-14 06:14:27 · answer #1 · answered by hwfiedler 5 · 0 0

First of all you shouldn't be able to do this. A prescription is needed for the contact lens and a doctor wouldn't put a random contact lens on your eye anyway. But, to answer the question, using a contact lens with a prescription in it, would not blur your vision and make you dependent on glasses. All it would do is blur your vision and probably create considerable eye strain. When the contact is removed, your normal vision will be restored. Interesting idea, but it wouldn't be to practical.

2016-03-29 09:52:28 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Sounds like a waste of time and money to me. Good luck with that.

2007-02-07 08:32:33 · answer #3 · answered by aimeeme_g 5 · 0 1

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