Let's say a person with normal vision (not requiring a prescription to see clearly) were to wear prescription contact lenses to create a Myopian (NearSightedness) effect, and then wore another prescription in glasses over the contacts to enable that person to see clearly again. Since the end effect would essentially be the same as when that person began with normal vision, would this person's eyes become dependent on the contacts and/or glasses, OR would the prescription in the glasses cancel out the prescription in the contact lenses?
2007-02-07
08:24:07
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3 answers
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asked by
David S
1
in
Health
➔ Other - Health