Are they related linguistically?
2007-02-07 06:45:38 · 5 answers · asked by Paperback Writer (real JPAA) 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I think yotg is right
2007-02-10 05:17:16 · answer #1 · answered by Gam Zo Letovah 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, the words come form different roots.
"shari'a" (Islamic law) comes from the root sh.r.' [شرع], while "sha'aruria" (scandal) comes from the quadrangular root sh.'.r.r [שערר].
the Hebrew equivalent of the Arabic root sh.r.' is שרע, means "expand; sprawl; spread"; it might be that the Arabic root and the Hebrew one share a common source and that the Arabic is a metaphor of the original meaning ("spreading the law", or something).
But I think that there is a connection between this Arabic root and the Hebrew root s.r.r [שרר], means "rule".
2007-02-08 04:09:08 · answer #2 · answered by yotg 6 · 5⤊ 0⤋
Might be...
Arabic and Hebrew have a lot of common and similar sounding words
Er, but what is "sha`aruria"?
2007-02-07 14:57:49 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Yotg referred to a "square root." Is that the same as a quadraliteral root?
2007-02-08 08:10:24 · answer #4 · answered by T J 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
not much diffrence
2007-02-07 15:17:53 · answer #5 · answered by Eccentric 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋