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2007-02-07 06:44:00 · 4 answers · asked by Paperback Writer (real JPAA) 3 in Society & Culture Languages

4 answers

No, the words come form different roots.
"shari'a" (Islamic law) comes from the root sh.r.' [شرع], while "sha'aruria" (scandal) comes from the quadrangular root sh.'.r.r [שערר].

the Hebrew equivalent of the Arabic root sh.r.' is שרע, means "expand; sprawl; spread"; it might be that the Arabic root and the Hebrew one share a common source and that the Arabic is a metaphor of the original meaning ("spreading the law", or something).
But I think that there is a connection between this Arabic root and the Hebrew root s.r.r [שרר], means "rule".

2007-02-07 20:09:39 · answer #1 · answered by yotg 6 · 1 0

i might say that a Jew is anyone of Jewish faith or Jewish ancestry. An Israelite is a citizen of Israel, or somebody who lives there now. A Hebrew is in all probability a historic term for the human beings and tribes of Moses (Hebrews) that lived in Judea, a minimum of as much as Roman cases. it is likewise the language of Jewish religous learn and the popular language of the state of Israel.

2016-12-17 04:40:12 · answer #2 · answered by karsten 4 · 0 0

Yotg's answer makes sense.

2007-02-10 05:22:57 · answer #3 · answered by Gam Zo Letovah 3 · 1 0

the language is different

2007-02-07 07:49:46 · answer #4 · answered by snowdrop 4 · 0 1

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