If Jesus, like Adam, was created without sin, why are Catholics taught that Mary is the Immaculate Conception?

Answer 1

Only a perfected vessel could contain the Son of God.

Because God knew she would say yes when asked if she would accept the role of mother of the Messiah, God gave her special dispensation from original sin so that she would be perfect and thus be a capable vessel of the Divine.

Since she was the Immaculate Conception and thus had no original sin, she was preserved for all life and all times in life and sinlessness, even in her submission to her God.

That doesn't mean she wasn't a Jewish mother though. Remember, she managed to put Jesus on the spot at the wedding.

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Uncle Thesis: Incorrect. The doctrine of the Immaculate Conception applies to Mary's birth. The doctrine of Incarnation applies to Jesus's birth.

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Primoa: Well if you want to be a literalist, then Jesus cannot be Messiah. The Messiah must be born of David's line through Solomon. Mary's geneology is not through Solomon. Joseph's line is invalid because it goes through Jochiem, who was cursed by God that none of his descendants would ever be king of Israel.

Neither Mary nor Joseph have any claim to parenthood of the Messiah.

So if you're going to pick and choose your scriptures, let the Catholics do it too.

Me, I'll stay out of the melee entirely and just realize you're both wrong.

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Adoptive Father: *nods* Thank you for the acknowledgement. It was my time preparing for Seminary that most influenced my eventual return atheism, but I have retained the knowledge and joy of it all the same. I've read the Summa Theologicae by St. Thomas Aquinas (who was my patron saint when I was confirmed) and loved every moment of it (still glance back at it from time to time)

Answer 2

If Mary was without sin, she would not be in need of a Savior. Luke 1:46 Mary said "My soul glorifies the Lord and my spirit rejoices in God MY Savior."

The Bible does not say that Mary was and immaculate conception. This is a Catholic Church invention.

* Beginning of the exaltation of Mary, the term "Mother of God" first applied to her by the Council of Ephesus 431

* Immaculate Conception of the Virgin Mary, proclaimed by pope Pius IX 1854

Answer 3

I think everyone would like an answer to that question. I have a work acquaintance who is Catholic. He believes that Jesus sinned, but Mary did not. These people are serious about it. They will not even discuss the idea that they could be wrong.

Answer 4

Immaculate Conception = virgin, not sinless

Adam was created without sin, everyone else (including Jesus) was born with a sinful nature. The good news is that Jesus never sinned, despite the nature He was born with :)

Answer 5

"Mary is the immaculate conception."
What's that mean?
Mary HAD an immaculate conception.
Since sin is inheritable, something had to happen to make sure Mary didn't pass sin along to Jesus.
Conceiving immacutlately would do the job.
Although, that expression is a bit over the top.

Answer 6

Because without the IC Mary could not have had Jesus and still be wthout sin and He be sinless.

Answer 7

Like most catholic teaching....this is wrong.

Mary was the vessel God used to bring our Savior to this planet. Mary is just as fallable as any other human being....because she's just that....human.

We don't pray to or worship people.....we worship God.

May God be praised above all....


***Wrong JP....ALL have sinned and have fallen short of the glory of God. Jesus died for Mary's sins as well as mine.

Answer 8

JP has Catholic doctrine correct. Other denominations do not necessarily agree.

Answer 9

Its rather silly, do you have scripture to support your ideas, Jesus is God he doesn't need a perfect vessel

Answer 10

it is the process by which Jesus was born