You are questioning omniscience from your human level
logic - there are limitations to it.
In the 1930s, Austrian mathematician Godel proved a
theorem which became the "Godel theorem" in cognition
theory. It states that any formalized 'logical' system
in principle cannot be complete in itself. It means
that a statement can always be found that can be
neither disproved nor proved using the means of that
particular system. To discuss about such a statement,
one must go beyond that very logic system; otherwise
nothing but a vicious circle will result. Psychologist
say that any experience is contingent - it's opposite
is logically possible and hence should not be treated
as contradictory.
Almighty is Omnipotent. Almighty is infinite. How can
the finite understand the logic of the infinite?
2007-02-14 22:58:46
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
2⤋
Looking at a dictionary definition there seems to be two definitions for omniscient
1 : having infinite awareness, understanding, and insight
2 : possessed of universal or complete knowledge
If we take the first definition then the implication from "infinite understanding" is that technically that includes an understanding or awareness of what it feels like to be ignorant in which case we are left with a paradox. The second one is perhaps a little bit more insightful with its use of the term "complete knowledge". The question is what do we actually mean when we say complete knowledge. In particular consider the word knowledge.
1) Does this mean hard facts? Apples are a type of fruit. Paris is the capital of France. In which case there is no paradox. What its like not to know everything is not a hard fact, it is a sensation or experience and is thus not covered by this definition. In this way our omniscient being doesn't have any need for emotion at all as feelings are not part of this definition of knowledge. This leads to the interesting possibility of a being that knows every intricate detail of how the universe works e.g. what makes up quarks if anything but has no concept of love, hate, envy or friendship.
2) Does knowledge extend beyond these limits to encompass for example the knowledge of what it feels like be burnt when trying to eat a cake fresh from the oven for example? This is not a hard fact it is an experience. If we accept that what is learned from experience also counts as knowledge then we are left with a paradox since the experience of knowing nothing is in itself an experience. To be truly omniscient in this sense must include an acceptance of what it is to know nothing. One possible way to resolve this is through time. If our omniscient being was at some time aware of its existence yet before it was aware of its surroundings then there would be a time at the very instant it became self aware when it knew nothing. However, the question then arises if at some point are omniscient being knew nothing then surely it wasn't omniscient.
You can go on with this for ever but my point is this. It depends if experience constitutes knowledge. If it does not then we are ok it is however then it appears that true omniscience has issues with it that we could explore for a very long time. The example I finished with above is whether omniscience is taken as an instantaneous "thing" or can be taken to span across time.
Actually as a final note... I've just seen all the other answers given before me. I want to point out that Im not disputing the presence of God or any divine being/beings. Im merely pointing out that the definition of what it means to be "omniscient" could be taken to mean a number of things.
2007-02-07 12:52:52
·
answer #2
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
You are really going out of your way to try to bring God down. But it's not gonna work. Omniscience is not impossible because God is omniscient. God knows all and He knows what it would be like if he didn't know all. He knows He wouldn't be omniscient. He knew that you on this day would ask that question and I would answer it. God at His Omniscient best.
2007-02-07 12:27:51
·
answer #3
·
answered by The Last Good Man 3
·
0⤊
2⤋
I think the god creators were thinking omniscient meant knowing the future. Which makes anger and contradictory statements in the OT lend less credibility to the whole story.
2007-02-07 12:26:25
·
answer #4
·
answered by strpenta 7
·
1⤊
0⤋
Similar questions, similar attacks from the believers. They can only comprehend what was taught to them and believe it. There are exceptions though. There are many atheists who claim they were once a religious follower. I believe in those atheists because I have come to the same decision.
2007-02-15 11:05:17
·
answer #5
·
answered by ShanShui 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
Who are you to question God? I think that it is the devil that is working on your mind. Nothing is impossible with God. God knows everything, He has all knowledge. He gives you your ability to think. It is by His grace and mercy that you even have the ability to ask that question.
2007-02-07 12:29:07
·
answer #6
·
answered by Laura D 2
·
0⤊
1⤋
The lack of something does not make it materially real, just as dark and evil are not materially real, they merely are the lack light and the lack of God's Light in you life.
As for being omnipresent, consider that God and the Angels live on a different plain of existence, without the restrictions of our material world. They are intelligent forms of energy and energy permeates everything in our existence.
2007-02-07 12:26:57
·
answer #7
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
2⤋
You're forgetting the whole ultimate empathetic abilities thing.
2007-02-07 12:27:38
·
answer #8
·
answered by daisyk 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
and to be perfect you would have to understand all aspects of bad and good , feel how it is to be physical
i like you do not believe in this omniscient perfect God
but one who learns with us
2007-02-07 12:25:19
·
answer #9
·
answered by Peace 7
·
0⤊
2⤋
With God all things are possible.
2007-02-07 12:34:56
·
answer #10
·
answered by ? 7
·
0⤊
1⤋