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Please confirm...

(The words that I mean is: "as we are being slanderously reported as saying")

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Romans 3:5 But if our unrighteousness brings out God's righteousness more clearly, what shall we say? That God is unjust in bringing his wrath on us? 6 Certainly not! If that were so, how could God judge the world? 7 Someone might argue, If my falsehood enhances God's truthfulness and so increases his glory, why am I still condemned as a sinner? 8 Why not say - (as we are being slanderously reported as saying) and as some claim that we say - Let us do evil that good may result? Their condemnation is deserved.

2007-02-07 04:10:44 · 8 answers · asked by Ron 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

8 answers

In this case the apostle Paul is saying that (your bracket should be moved out to include,"and as some claim that we say") some were falsely claiming that they were saying "Let us do evil that good may come." This IS what he was saying, but YES, the brackets were added by the translators to make the point more easily understood. THESE brackets are used in the same way that we would use brackets or commas in our writing, the way I used the brackets above, to show a difference in the train of thought. Some translations add what other translations would say in a certain instance. Look in the front of your Bible to find what kind of markings are used in yours.
Please be careful what translation you rely on. Some are mistranslations, such as the NIV, NASV, etc. The only ones the are safe are KJV & NKJV. The New English Version is pretty good too. If you have questions, please feel free to Email me.

2007-02-07 04:29:39 · answer #1 · answered by Angel L 3 · 0 1

Romans 3: 5 But if our unrighteousness commend the righteousness of God, what shall we say? Is God unrighteous who taketh vengeance? (I speak as a man) Romans 3: 6 God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world? Romans 3: 7 For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner? Romans 3: 8 And not rather, (as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may come? whose damnation is just. The word between the brackets were not added by the translators. Above is how the verses should read. You must have a modern version of the Bible. Note how the bracket in your Bible differs from my. In the King James Bible all words that have been added to help understand the Greek to English are italic. It is a true translation and not done for money because it has no copyright.

2007-02-07 04:35:13 · answer #2 · answered by Ray W 6 · 0 0

Romans 3:5 However, if our unrighteousness brings god's righteousness to the fore, what shall we say?
God is not unjust when he vents his wrath, is he?
6 Never may that happen! How otherwise will God judge the world? Explain:
I think it says: in comparison to us God looks pretty good.
So therefore how can we complain if we get what we deserve.
That is how he judges the world.
He said, Noah condemed the people of that day by his righteousness. In other words showed that people could have been good they chose not to.
The righteous people in the world today give proof that people can be good but don't.
Say two people in the same situation one steals to get what he needs and the other one waits and does it the right way.
Proveing you didn't need to steal to survive.

2007-02-07 04:23:23 · answer #3 · answered by Ruth 6 · 0 2

The New Testament has been changed, added to, and subtracted from so many times over the centuries that it is impossible to know who added what at which time. Do you know why the New International Version is so much thinner than the KJV? It's because the KJV contains many passages which scholars now know were absent from the oldest manuscripts. The NIV is based on the oldest known manuscripts, rather than the more recent ones that the KJV translators used, and therefore much is missing simply because it wasn't there. Translators and copyists added it later.

Keep in mind, too, that parentheses and other punctuation was not included in the Greek manuscripts; these had to be added in based on the translators' perception of the context.

2007-02-07 04:20:46 · answer #4 · answered by Antique Silver Buttons 5 · 0 3

You can go to a City Library and compare verses
which I often do, and I notice very little changes
and the changes are usually, like thow shall be
and in modern translations, the verse will say you
should be. Hope that this helps, you may even be
able to go online and compare verses.

2007-02-07 05:11:08 · answer #5 · answered by itsmissjackson 3 · 0 0

In the original. It would seem to be a judgment call by the translational committee to include the parenthesis themselves, since I don’t believe that Kone Greek has punctuation (but English does).

Square brackets usually indicates words not in the original language, but impled, since Hebrew & Greek have different rules of grammar than English.

2007-02-07 04:25:59 · answer #6 · answered by Randy G 7 · 0 1

The words in parenthesis (they are not brackets) are part of the original Greek text. However, in the Authorized Version (KJV) words in italics are added for clarity.

P.S. The Koine Greek of the N.T. does indeed have punctuation.

2007-02-07 04:26:06 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Whatever evil and holly are our owned ideas. These ideas might cause us to standpoint our own and against others then will become arguement and fight and kill. I will not argue any bible nor sutra. I will only look into how I can improve my concept next time. The bible or sutras are only for studying and consideration. None of them can be applied on our present life situation. There must be a little bit different from those datas.

2007-02-07 04:19:10 · answer #8 · answered by johnkamfailee 5 · 0 3

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