English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Has anyone ever answered the question as to why Jesus' genealogy is 28 generations in Matthew and 43 generations in Luke? Check it out. Also, why establish a lineage for Christ through Joseph. Joseph is allegedly his stepfather, not his father. I don't get it.

2007-02-06 13:58:02 · 11 answers · asked by robert m 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

11 answers

The two lineages show the purity in Christ. Many think that those two are talking about Joseph having "two fathers". The one in Matthew is showing the lineage of Joseph all the way back to David. Luke is showing Mary's lineage all the way back to Adam.

Matthew 1:16 "And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ." Here it clearly shows THE HUSBAND OF MARY....

Luke 3:23And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli," ....in those days the man of the family were the only one that was able to record the family for the censuses.... thus the reasoning many don't understand this lineage is Mary's.

The reason for only showing 28 for Joseph... and the 43 for Mary is.. Joseph is the "step father" and Mary is the bloodline of the human in Jesus.

Mary is from Nathan who was the son of David;
Joseph is the son of Solomon who is the son of David.

Hope that helps you!!

2007-02-06 14:05:19 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

Matthew liked triplets. There are actually 3 groups of 14 each. 14 is the # in Hebrew of "David". Jesus, by prophecy, needed to be the descendent of David. David in turn was the descendent of Judah - the 4th born and heir of Jacob the last of the Patriarchs.
Matthew was written for the jewish believers so he arranges the program through Joseph. 1 Exception - group # 3 only has 13 names...a mistake...or is Mary to be understood as the 14th and thus completion.
To reach his schematic, Mt. had to "adjust" the geneology a bit, thus Luke's version. One list needed to be historically linked and the other could remain psychologically/traditionally linked.
Even though Joe was a step-father. Mary's first born would have first born rights in his family.

2007-02-06 14:42:40 · answer #2 · answered by Joe Cool 6 · 0 0

Noah #10 son, Abraham #20 son, David #34 son, Jehoiachin #48 son, Jesus #62 son.
Matt.1:1-17;
Ruth 4:18-22;
1Cor.3:1-17;
Exo.6:23;
The priestline and the kingline had married into each other since Aaron and Amminadab.

Jesus is Joseph's son, because Joseph became the husband of Mary.

2007-02-06 14:13:00 · answer #3 · answered by jeni 7 · 0 0

Both represent Joseph's lineage, the differences seem to be legal vs. physical. Since the only indication in scripture leads us to believe that Mary was Levite, NEITHER represents her lineage, as some claim.

Joseph was Jesus' LEGAL father, and HIS was the ONLY genealogy in which that culture was interested.

2007-02-06 14:02:37 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

The Luke genealogy is from Mary, but the Matthew one is Joseph's. It just shows how both parents descended from royalty (David's line). Joseph, son of Heli, means Joseph, the son-in-law of Heli. Heli was Mary's father, and Joseph was "adopted", if you will, into Mary's family when they married. Look it up if you don't believe me.

2007-02-06 14:06:57 · answer #5 · answered by Iamnotarobot (former believer) 6 · 1 0

The usual answer is that one is Joseph's and one is Mary's; though this is wrong. If you check, both clearly state they are Joseph's ancestors: "and Jacob the father of Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom Jesus was born," (Matthew 1:16) and "Jesus was about thirty years old when he began his work. He was the son (as was thought) of Joseph son of Heli." (Luke 3:23).

2007-02-06 14:05:52 · answer #6 · answered by The Doctor 7 · 0 1

God will NOT be mocked.

God is the Father of us ALL, including Jesus Christ.

2007-02-06 14:04:11 · answer #7 · answered by bettyboop 6 · 0 1

Two different jesii?

Changing genealogy to fit prophecies?

Sloppy editing?

2007-02-06 14:06:25 · answer #8 · answered by eldad9 6 · 1 2

The Word of God is infalliable. May God Bless U.

2007-02-06 14:02:13 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Read the book of Numbers it will be perfectly clear then !!!

2007-02-06 14:05:01 · answer #10 · answered by having fun 3 · 0 1

fedest.com, questions and answers