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'For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.'

Discussion of this passage with a Jehovah's Witness usually goes like this:

'Who is this child born unto us?'
'It is Jesus Christ'
'What does the verse call Him?'
'It calls Him Wonderful, Counsellor, the mighty God...'
'The mighty who?'
'Well, it calls Him the Mighty God, but He's not the Almighty God, who is Jehovah, the Father.'
'What does it call Him after the mighty God?'
(Silence)

2007-02-06 10:54:31 · 8 answers · asked by Prodical Son 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Again we should point out to the Jehovah's Witness where such theology leads. Jehovah's Witnesses must believe from such passages that Jesus is either (a) a false God, or (b) a second true God. Either position will be confusing for a Jehovah's Witness who has never thought out the argument himself.

While on Isaiah 9:6, ask the Witness the difference between the 'Mighty God' (whom he acknowledges to be Jesus) and the 'Almighty God' (who he says is Jehovah -- God the Father). Perhaps he will say that the Almighty God Jehovah upholds all things by the word of His power. But Hebrews 1:3 says this of Jesus. Perhaps he will say that the Almighty God Jehovah has all power in Heaven and earth. But Matthew 28:18 says this of Jesus. By definition, 'almighty' means 'all-powerful'.11 Therefore Jesus Christ is almighty.

2007-02-06 10:56:32 · update #1

Also show the Jehovah's Witness that even though the Watchtower organization teaches that the Mighty God and the Almighty God are different, Scripture does not support this. Ask him to read Isaiah 10:20,21 in his New World Translation. Verse 21 says, 'A mere remnant will return, the remnant of Jacob, to the Mighty God.' A former Jehovah's Witness elder, David Reed, suggests you say to the Witness: 'Since Isaiah was a Jew and therefore believed in only one God -- Jehovah -- whom did Isaiah understand the Mighty God to be?' Certainly Isaiah would have understood the Mighty God to be Jehovah. So the inspired Word written through Isaiah the prophet calls Jehovah the 'Mighty God', even though the Jehovah's Witness admits that Isaiah 9:6 says Jesus is the 'Mighty God'.12

2007-02-06 10:57:34 · update #2

To reinforce the point, ask the Witness to read Jeremiah 32:18 in his own Bible. Remind him that the Watchtower Society teaches that the Mighty God and the Almighty God are different. Jeremiah 32:18 gives the name of the Mighty God: 'the true God, the great One, the mighty One, Jehovah of armies being his name.' Then say to the Witness that as Jesus is the 'Mighty God', and Jehovah is the 'Mighty God', who must Jesus be? (Let him reach the conclusion himself that Jesus and Jehovah are one -- as John 10:30 says.)

2007-02-06 10:58:20 · update #3

8 answers

It is certainly important for each Christian to continue to study the bible as the only infallible inspired means of knowing the Will of God.

(1 Thessalonians 5:20,21) Do not treat prophesyings with contempt. Make sure of all things; hold fast to what is fine.

(1 John 4:1) Beloved ones, do not believe every inspired expression, but test the inspired expressions to see whether they originate with God

(Acts 17:11) ...carefully examining the Scriptures daily...


Among the Scriptures with rich spiritual meaning is Isaiah 9:6; almost universally recognized by self-described Christians as prophetically referring to Jesus Christ. The various titles which this verse applies to Jesus are intended to teach the reader about the different functions that Jesus performs to benefit mankind.

(Isaiah 9:6) For there has been a child born to us, there has been a son given to us; and the princely rule will come to be upon his shoulder. And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace.


Jesus' title "Wonderful Counselor" reminds us of the winsome message of love and "good news" which Jesus preached and teached. Jesus' title "Prince of Peace" reminds us that he serves at the Almighty's pleasure as the King of God's Messianic Kingdom, which promises peace for all after Armageddon. Jesus' title "Mighty God" reminds us of Jesus' powerful role in the original creation, in executing judgement, and in the re-creation.

So which of these titles refers to the main purpose Jesus came to earth? Which title refers to the shed blood of Jesus' ransom sacrifice which redeems mankind and allows the forgiveness of sins?

"Eternal Father"! Where the man Adam failed his offspring, the man Jesus redeemed his "children".

The perfect human Jesus REPLACES the originally perfect Adam as mankind's "father". Instead of Adam providing each of his offspring with a short lifespan and death, Jesus' sacrifice gives ETERNAL life. Instead of Adam's few thousand years of imperfect offspring, Jesus' sacrifice allows untold eons and generations of perfection and bliss.

(Isaiah 43:27) Your own father, the first one [Adam], has sinned

(1 Corinthians 15:22) For just as in Adam all are dying, so also in the Christ all will be made alive.

(Romans 5:17) By the trespass of the one man [Adam] death ruled as king... the free gift of righteousness rule as kings in life through the one person, Jesus Christ.

(Romans 5:12,14) Through one man sin entered into the world and death through sin... death ruled as king from Adam... Adam, who bears a resemblance to him [Jesus] that was to come


Despite what this questioner or some disgruntled former Witness may pretend, Isaiah and his countrymen (and modern bible readers) are quite capable of understanding that the term "father" (or "Mighty God") can simultaneously apply to Jehovah and someone besides Jehovah. Note this brief exchange between Jesus and some Jews:

(John 8:39-41) They said to [Jesus]: “Our father is Abraham.” ...They said to [Jesus]: “...we have one Father, God.”

Those Jews certainly did not intend to imply that their father Abraham was their father God Jehovah; and obviously Isaiah never intended that by his words at Isaiah 9:6. Faithful mankind can look to Jesus and Jehovah as their benevolent heavenly Father and Grand Father!

2007-02-08 05:01:38 · answer #1 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 2 1

‘But isn’t Jesus called a god in the Bible?’ someone may ask. This is true. Yet Satan is also called a god. (2 Corinthians 4:4) At John 1:1, which refers to Jesus as “the Word,” some Bible translations say: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” But notice, verse 2 says that the Word was “in the beginning with God.” And while men have seen Jesus, verse 18 says that “no man hath seen God at any time.” (Authorized or King James Version) So we find that some translations of verse 1 give the correct idea of the original language when they read: “The Word was with God, and the Word was divine,” or was “a god,” that is, the Word was a powerful godlike one. (An American Translation) Clearly, Jesus is not Almighty God. In fact, Jesus spoke of his Father as “my God” and as “the only true God.”

Did Jesus ever say that he was God? No, he never did. Rather, in the Bible he is called “God’s Son.” And he said: “The Father is greater than I am.” Also, Jesus explained that there were some things that neither he nor the angels knew but that only God knew. (Mark 13:32) Further, on one occasion Jesus prayed to God, saying: “Let, not my will, but yours take place.” (Luke 22:42) If Jesus were the Almighty God, he would not have prayed to himself, would he? In fact, following Jesus’ death, the Scripture says: “This Jesus God resurrected.” (Acts 2:32) Thus the Almighty God and Jesus are clearly two separate persons. Even after his death and resurrection and ascension to heaven, Jesus was still not equal to his Father.


As for the “Holy Spirit,” the so-called third Person of the Trinity, this is not a person but God’s active force. John the Baptizer said that Jesus would baptize with holy spirit, even as John had been baptizing with water. Hence, in the same way that water is not a person, holy spirit is not a person. (Matthew 3:11) What John foretold was fulfilled when, following the death and resurrection of Jesus, holy spirit was poured out on his followers gathered in Jerusalem. The Bible says: “They all became filled with holy spirit.” (Acts 2:4) Were they “filled” with a person? No, but they were filled with God’s active force. Thus the facts make clear that the Trinity is not a Bible teaching. Actually, long before Jesus walked the earth gods were worshiped in groups of three, or trinities, in places such as ancient Egypt and Babylon.

2007-02-07 01:04:55 · answer #2 · answered by BJ 7 · 2 0

At Isaiah 43:10 Jehovah says: “Before me no god was formed, nor shall there be any after me.” Does this mean that, because Jesus Christ is prophetically called “Mighty God” at Isaiah 9:6, Jesus must be Jehovah? Again, the context answers, No! None of the idolatrous Gentile nations formed a god before Jehovah, because no one existed before Jehovah. Nor would they at a future time form any real, live god that was able to prophesy. (Isa. 46:9, 10) But that does not mean that Jehovah never caused to exist anyone who is properly referred to as a god. (Ps. 82:1, 6; John 1:1, NW) At Isaiah 10:21 Jehovah is referred to as “mighty God,” just as Jesus is in Isaiah 9:6; but only Jehovah is ever called “God Almighty.”—Gen. 17:1.

If a certain title or descriptive phrase is found in more than one location in the Scriptures, it should never hastily be concluded that it must always refer to the same person. Such reasoning would lead to the conclusion that Nebuchadnezzar was Jesus Christ, because both were called “king of kings” (Dan. 2:37; Rev. 17:14); and that Jesus’ disciples were actually Jesus Christ, because both were called “the light of the world.” (Matt. 5:14; John 8:12) We should always consider the context and any other instances in the Bible where the same expression occurs.

By the way, how can Jesus be God when he called his Father the only true God. (John 17:3) I assume you know what the word "only" mean. Also, how can Jesus be God since he and Mary BOTH worshiped THE SAME GOD! At John 20:17, he told her: "I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to MY GOD AND YOUR GOD."

No matter how hard you try to make Jesus God, you will not succeed.

If you have already made your mind up about what we believe, why are you asking questions?

By the way, you misspelled "prodigal."

2007-02-06 18:59:00 · answer #3 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 2 0

Unfortunately, you have misunderstood the scriptures.

It is true that Jehovah is called Mighty God, and Almighty God. Jesus is called Mighty God but never Almighty God.

Besides Jesus being a Mighty God is different from Jehovah's being the Mighty God. Why? The title of Mighty God, Eternal Father for Jehovah has no beginning, but for Jesus, those titles were given and has a BEGINNING. Notice the use of FUTURE TENSE in Isa 9:6 (And his name WILL be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God...)
Isa 9:6 is a prophecy, and when Isa 9:6 was written, that prophecy has not yet happened.

As the Bible states in Mat 28:18 also, God GAVE all authority to Jesus, all authority due to the Son, but guess what, 1 Cor 15:28 states "28 But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone." If ALL powers are given to Jesus, then are you saying that the Father now is powerless?

In the Trinity doctrine, the Son is NOT the Father, and they are two persons, so if you are saying that Jesus is the same person as the Father as well, you are in fact conflicting with the doctrine of the Trinity.

Jehovah has given the title "Eternal Father" to Jesus, a title that Jehovah God has shared and given him as well because through Jesus all humans to be saved are to be given eternal life. But Jesus knows that he will again as the "Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him"

2007-02-07 10:06:44 · answer #4 · answered by trustdell1 3 · 2 0

A Mighty God receives its power and existence from an Almighty God. Many in the Bible are referred to as gods, including Satan and men, but never as Almighty God. Only Jehovah is called an Almighty God. Even the Apostle never uses the same Greek word for god when referring to Christ as he does for Jehovah. He does use the same spelling for god as he does in referring to Christ, Satan, and men.

Go to any Bible Book Store and buy an Interlinear Greek Translation of the New Testament.

Real simple. With you overly long additions, you must really fear them and what they represent as the only religion where as a whole they learn the whole Bible, young or old. They wear out Bibles, including copies of the King James, on a regular basis.

Speaking of the King James, which do you use of the five versions created over 150 year time period. Only the last one was AUTHORIZED when it finally matched the beliefs of the Church of England and was not as strict as the Geneva Bible.

2007-02-06 20:13:38 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Well I'm not a Jehovah Witness, I don't know how they think. But I begin my reasoning with The Logos was with God, and was God, but was not a God, because there is only one God. The Logos became flesh, God did not.

2007-02-06 19:06:40 · answer #6 · answered by rezany 5 · 1 0

So all Gods mentioned in the bible with a capital "G" must mean that this one is equal to, or the same as Jehovah?

What about Moses?

Ex. 7:1Then the LORD said to Moses, "See, I make you as God to Pharaoh, and your brother Aaron shall be your prophet.

or how about the angel of Jehovah?

Judges 13:21Now the angel of the LORD did not appear to Manoah or his wife again. Then Manoah knew that he was the angel of the LORD.

22So Manoah said to his wife, "We will surely die, for we have seen God."

So we have Jehovah, Jesus, Moses, and an angel all equal? All the same?

NO!

Same titles does not make them equal.

2007-02-07 15:15:51 · answer #7 · answered by TeeM 7 · 3 0

Amen everlasting FATHER!
HE is indeed God Almighty!
Also John 1:1 --what do the jw's do with that verse?

2007-02-06 19:02:27 · answer #8 · answered by Mandolyn Monkey Munch 6 · 0 1

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