When me and my wife divorced mid-year, she gave me half the value of the house and I signed over the house to her. Don't I still get to claim the 6 months I owned it with her?
2007-02-05 16:48:55 · 4 answers · asked by John D 2 in Business & Finance ➔ Taxes ➔ United States
Boy- I hope it's in your divorce decree, other wise you're getting the shaft! If the mortgage interest statement (form 1098) comes in her name, there's nothing you can do about it- she can walk into thae tax office with it and stick it on her Schedule A. The preparer wouldn't think twice about it! Check your divorce papers!
2007-02-05 18:15:35 · answer #1 · answered by Honesty given here! 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you made the payment, or part of it, you should be able to claim a share of the interest too.
2007-02-06 00:54:27 · answer #2 · answered by jeff410 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
who made the payment? if it was from joint funds, then you should both claim half. otherwise, she should reimburse you for the amount you paid and she get the full deduction.
2007-02-06 01:00:45 · answer #3 · answered by tma 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Call H&R block or something unless there is someone that knows the tax laws. Don't just go by someones opinion
2007-02-06 00:58:16 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋