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For example...
Daselo is correct, but why isn't Dalelo correct?

What about "les"?

For example, if you are given the question..
"Debo decirles la verdad?"

Would the answer be
No, no se la digas

or

No, no les la digas?

2007-02-05 14:11:35 · 6 answers · asked by saira n 1 in Society & Culture Languages

6 answers

no ,no se la digas
but you can use;
no no les digas

2007-02-05 14:18:41 · answer #1 · answered by Byzantino 7 · 3 0

Great question!
The answer to your question is: because that's the way it's done.
But why is it done that way?
I don't know for sure, but I have a theory: it's called dissimilation.
Many languages have a process where they don't allow too many similar sounds to be close to each other.
Spanish, for example, doesn't like to have too many vowels in a row, which is probably why the past tense of a verb like "caer" is "cayeron" instead of "caieron".
And did you know that if you are using an article before a word that starts with a stressed "a" sound, you're supposed to use "el", even if the word is feminine? That prevents two stressed "a" sounds from being next to each other.
In a similar fashion, then, perhaps Spanish doesn't like to have too many "l" sounds in a word near each other.
This is probably a phonological process in Spanish.
I'm a linguist, so I like studying phonology.
Thanks for giving me the chance to think about this!

By the way, you are right: "No se la digas" is correct.

2007-02-06 00:16:13 · answer #2 · answered by drshorty 7 · 1 2

the correct way is: "no, no se la digas", because, "les" is only applied when you'll say: (in the start of the sentence)...: " Les dire la verdad" ..." debo decirles la verdad" is when you doubt still, like in English " I must say the truth"... as to...:" I will tell them the truth"... "les" is plural while "le" is singular "Les dire la verdad" plural...le dire la verdad... singular and "decir les" is equal to "les dire"..."decir" is the verb, "dire" is the co preterit of the verb.

2007-02-05 22:28:35 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

When you use "se" the subject is implicit (he, she, it).
Example:
Dale ese hueso al perro, ¿qué esperas? DÁSELO = Give this bone to the dog, what are you waiting for? Give it to him.

When you use "les" the subject (implicit too) is THEY.
Example:
¿Debo decirles la verdad? = Should I tell them the truth?
No, no se la digas = No, don't tell them.

Here the answer could be too:
No, no les digas = No, don't tell them.

or

No les digas nada = Don't tell them anything.

---------->

I hope this can help you

2007-02-05 23:05:17 · answer #4 · answered by Oswald ☆☆☆☆☆ 6 · 0 2

You use "se" when there isn't "la(s)" "le(s)" "lo(s)" in the sentence.

No se la digas
Díselo = tell (him/her/them) that (it)
se lo di = i gave it to him/her/them
se lo compré = i bought it from/for him/her/them

you use le when there isn't "la(s)", "lo(s)" in the sentence

No le(s) digas la verdad
Dile = tell him
le(s) di las llaves = i gave him/her (them)
le compré un regalo = i bought him/her a present

As you can see it's very easy.

Hope that helps

2007-02-06 02:48:11 · answer #5 · answered by chris_keever2000 7 · 1 1

tricky one, well, you'll have to practice a little more your writing& speaking, and then after a while, you'll feel it... =P

2007-02-05 22:18:12 · answer #6 · answered by sway2021 2 · 1 0

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