In colonial days they didn't use the lettes J and U why?

Answer 1

Actually, you don't have your facts quite right. It IS true that in the 16th-17th centuries i/j and u/v were used DIFFERENTLY from the way they are now, but the letters were the same.

Here's how it worked:

J is a variant of the Latin I created toward the end of the Middle Ages. It actually was resulted from cursive (hand)writing in which a "swash" might be added to the bottom of the I, chiefly at the END of words and to distinguish it from other letters in that position.

Similarly, U was a medieval cursive variant of Latin V.

For many centuries members of the pairs i/j and u/v were used interchangeably (so might each be considered to be ONE letter). But over time various European languages began to use one of each pair (especially using U and I for vowel sounds [as they had mostly been] and using J and V for consonants). The distinction of J and V for the consonant in English began in the early 1600s, a practice pushed by continental printers. BUT neither of these was completely established for some time (for instance, I/J were lumped together in alphabetical listings until he 19th century). So it's not surprising you see a different pattern of usage in colonial English



In English of the 16th-17th centuries, the usual pattern was the use the "V" form at the BEGINNING of words, and the "U" anywhere else. (Actually, the CAPITAL form "V" did not even exist till about 1700; the captial U was 'invented' from its original lower-case form when the writing distinction between the vowel and consonant was established.)

Thus you would write "vnder" and "vain", as well as "house" and "euil".

Here are a couple of examples of that pattern for you to look at:

from the Geneva Bible (1560):
1. In the 2 beginning 3 God created the heauen and the earth.
2. And the earth was 4 5 without forme and voide, and 6 darkenesse was vpon the 7 deepe, and the Spirit of God 8 moued vpon the 9 waters.
http://www.bible-researcher.com/geneva/genesis1.html

from the King James Bible [1611] (image from an early edition [the 23rd Psalm])
http://www.bibleandscience.com/bible/images/kjvpsalm23.jpg


See also:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/I
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/V

http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=j
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=V

http://www.evertype.com/standards/wynnyogh/thorn.html
see 2.11 (explains origin in handwriting, the "swash" at the end of I, etc)

Answer 2

Condoms were made from a sheep's intestine in Roman Times, and that's long before Colonial days. Some form of birth control has been around since humans discovered having sex resulted in children. As there have been players since the dawn of time.

Answer 3

These letters did not exist in the original Latin alphabet. 'I' was used for modern 'I' and 'J'. 'V' was used for 'V' and 'U'. Notice that in each pair, there's both a consonant and a vowel. 'J' and 'U' developed to distinguish the other halves of these pairs. Incidentally, although it may seem strange to use the same letter to represent two different sounds, remember that we still do it today, such as the letter 'Y', which is sometimes a consonant, sometimes a vowel, just as 'I' and 'V' once were.

Answer 4

You'd better let James Madison, John Smith, and all the settlers of Jamestown know.

Answer 5

Languages are constantly changing; both the written and the spoken. Although from my observation, it seems that English appears to be changing the quickest, no doubt in part because of technology's rapid increase. And I'm sure laziness also plays a part. (It takes less time to say "Ya'll come back," rather than "Please come visit us again at your convenience," and so forth.)

Answer 6

the "J" did not exist until 1400. And then it didn't catch on real fast. Not sure about the "U".

Answer 7

i really don't know ....... maybe they hadn't thought of them back then or they had trouble pronouncing them