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The New World Translation here reads;

"Pay attention to yourselves and to all the flock, among which the holy spirit has appointed you overseers, to shepherd to congregation of God, which he purchased with the blood of his own [Son]."
WHO PURCHASED CHURCH WITH HIS OWN BLOOD?
God
Ac 20:28 Why is [Son] in brackets? How can this be "understood" without being in the Greek text explicitly?

The New American Standard Bible reads here:
.
to shepherd the Church of God which He purchased with His own Blood."
This would mean, that, as it was Jesus who was the one who died upon the "stauros," and whom the scriptures tells us "poured out his blood,"(Mat.26:28; John 6:54; 1 John 1:7)he is here referred to as "God."

Acts 20:28 (New International Version)

28Keep watch over yourselves and all the flock of which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers.[a] Be shepherds of the church of God,[b] which he bought with his own blood.

2007-02-05 12:31:37 · 8 answers · asked by Prodical Son 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Acts 20:28 (English Standard Version)
28Pay careful attention to yourselves and to all the flock, in which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to care for the church of God,[a] which he obtained with his own blood.

2007-02-05 12:32:28 · update #1

Revelation 5:9
9And they sang a new song, saying, Worthy are You to take the book and to break its seals; for You were slain, and purchased for God with Your blood men from every tribe and tong

2007-02-05 12:34:24 · update #2

8 answers

The bible teaches that Jesus purchased the congregation with his own blood. Of course, Jesus' life had belonged to Jehovah.

(Galatians 3:13) Christ by purchase released us

(1 Corinthians 7:23) You were bought with a price

(Hebrews 9:11,12) Christ came... not with the blood of goats and of young bulls, but with his own blood

(1 Corinthians 6:11,19,20) You have been declared righteous in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ and with the spirit of our God. ...Also, you do not belong to yourselves, for you were bought with a price


Jesus' life was owned by God, so Jehovah also "paid" for mankind's salvation. Admittedly, the most literal translation of Acts 2:38 might be:
"...the congregation of God, which he purchased with the blood of his own."

"New World Translation" conspicuously notes its own guess at what is being referred to as 'God's own', and thus reads "...the congregation of God, which he purchased with the blood of his own [Son]."

Trinitarianism insists that Jehovah the Father and Jesus the Son are the same person, so they also tend to insist that 'God purchased the congregation with the blood of his own self'. But does that idea agree with the bible? Or does the NWT phrasing ("his own Son") agree better with what the bible explicitly teaches regarding the ransom sacrifice?

(Romans 8:3,11) God, by sending HIS OWN SON in the likeness of sinful flesh... [God the Father] will also make your mortal bodies alive [caps added]

(Romans 8:31,32) God is for us, who will be against us? He who did not even spare HIS OWN SON but delivered him up for us all

(John 3:16,17) God loved the world so much that he gave his only-begotten Son... For God sent forth his Son

(Ephesians 1:3,6,7) Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ... [God] kindly conferred upon us by means of his loved one. By means of him we have the release by ransom through the blood of that one

(1 John 1:5,7) God is light... the blood of Jesus his Son cleanses us from all sin.


Incidentally, most of Christianity agrees that Christ's blood serves as a ransom. To whom is that ransom paid if not to God; could God pay a ransom to himself?

(Hebrews 9:14) the blood of the Christ, who ...offered himself without blemish to God

2007-02-06 23:05:19 · answer #1 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 1 0

Act 20:28 Take heed 4337 therefore 3767 unto yourselves 1438, and 2532 to all 3956 the flock 4168, over 1722 the which 3739 the Holy 40 Ghost 4151 hath made 5087 you 5209 overseers 1985, to feed 4165 the church 1577 of God 2316, which 3739 he hath purchased 4046 with 1223 his own 2398 blood 129 _______ Even Westcott and Hort translates in this verse as God. W&H manuscripts are claimed to be the base of the NWT. Of course, only when they agree with the doctrines of the Watch Tower. If the W&H manuscripts do not agree the Watch Tower finds some reason to justify the language and this is absolute garbage. Westcott and Hort: ekklhsian G1577 OUT-CALLED ecclesia tou G3588 OF-THE theou G2316 God hn G3739 WHICH periepoihsato G4046 dia G1223 through tou G3588 THE idiou G2398 OWN aimatos G129 BLOOD _______ The Watch Tower and Watch Tower defenders try to confuse and obfuscate. Some manuscripts this or that. Again this shows the dishonesty of the NWT 'translation' committee and the theology that it is written to support. Four of the five NWT 'translation' committee sat on the Governing Body of the Watch Tower and none of them had any training in biblical Hebrew or Koine Greek.

2016-03-15 07:23:24 · answer #2 · answered by Susan 3 · 0 0

You bring up an interesting scripture, that actually is understood when you transliterate (word for word). Translation is important because it doesn't translate words but ideas. The question you ask regarding the different versions is interesting because it would make you wonder who is being talked about. I do not have Koine Greek on my computer but I will put in brackets the transliterated meaning.

Acts 20:28 ---

[Be you paying attention] [to selves] [and] [to all] [the] [flock] [in] [which] [you] [the] [spirit] [the] [holy] [put] [overseers] [to be shepherding] [the] [ecclesia] [of the] [God] [which] [he reserved for self] [through] [the] [blood] [of the] [own]

It would seem that 2 distinct people are being talked about here due to the definite article [of the] making each noun specific --- [God] & [own]. [God] is clear, the question in regards to this scripture is the [own], is it God or someone else? Why not say "His" instead of own? Why would the writer use [of the] again when speaking of own, if he was already speaking of God? Or is [own] speaking of Jesus?

Jesus is refered to in other scriptures as God's only-begotten son, as any father can speak of his offspring as his own. Based upon the context, I would say that the congregation / church belongs to God, which he purchased by the blood of Jesus.

2007-02-05 13:50:16 · answer #3 · answered by OatesATM 3 · 1 0

Whose blood was used to purchase the congregation of God? It is Jesus. So Acts 20:28 can be properly understood as "
he purchased with the blood of his own [Son]."

A noun in the singular number would be understood after “his own,” most likely God’s closest relative, his only-begotten Son Jesus Christ. God is a spirit and he has no fleshly blood, it was his Son, Jesus, who became human, who had blood.

If you have kids, as a parent, you can say that they are your own blood, your own flesh and bones. That doesn't mean that the Father and the kids are the same.

2007-02-06 03:05:48 · answer #4 · answered by trustdell1 3 · 1 0

the only bible that you can actually read that hasnt been defiled is the King James Version (the original one) because the other books have changed the wording and names enough to make a huge difference in which one you read. for satain wishes to be like Him, (dont remember which verse that is in the bible) but many Christians take it as the other versions of the bible, dont have taken Gods name out of them around 55 times, and Jesus' name, they dont say study the bible like the KJV does, so they are a tad bit misleading.

but Yahweh is another name for Jesus, in a different lanuguage or something of that sort.

2007-02-05 12:39:46 · answer #5 · answered by Alexial Jastire 2 · 0 1

Any one can cherry pick to try to confuse or what ever...but it is written it will be revealed by the Holy Ghost. Jesus is God made flesh while still all mighty God. That is the 3 in one. Jesus prayed to God while He was flesh. God lived as a man,while still being God. He was perfect. By one man all mankind was condemned,Adam. Through one man all can be saved into ever lasting life Jesus.

2007-02-05 12:37:27 · answer #6 · answered by Mijoecha 3 · 0 0

They are one in being. God is Father, Son and Holy Spirit all at the same time. So, God paid the price in the person of the son.

2007-02-05 12:36:42 · answer #7 · answered by MikeD 3 · 0 1

and whats ur point ... that somehow Jesus and the Father are not one? ...

2007-02-05 12:37:04 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

either ask a question, or wait until somebody posts one to answer it...

2007-02-05 12:36:35 · answer #9 · answered by DAVID C 6 · 1 0

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