when did it become wrong biblically to have more than 1 wife?

Answer 1

When you couldn't afford to keep her in the style to which she expected to become accustomed.

If you can't afford it, you can't have it.

Answer 2

From the beginning. Let's be honest, if God wanted Adam to have more than 1 wife, He would have given Adam wives. Since He took only one rib, He must have intended 1 wife for 1 husband.

Answer 3

Under Mosaic law, it was acceptable for a man to have more than one wife. One pragmatic reason for this was that women's career opportunities and ability to own property were severely limited in ancient times. Single women were economically vulnerable and needed a man to support them. A second reason is one that underlies a number of Mosaic laws--the overriding goal of achieving a Hebrew nation. Polygamy allowed the Hebrew people to multiply into a formidable nation more quickly. In ancient times, strength in numbers was crucial to survival.

However, Christians eschewed polygamy from the beginning of the faith. Paul, the most prolific author of the New Testament, was a Christian convert and leader of the movement throughout the mediterianian region. Paul instructed his followers to forbid polygamists from holding offices in the church. He articuled a litmus test for church leaders--that they be "husbands of one wife." See 1 Timothy 3:12. This principle was reiterated in Titus 1:6. Ever since, Christians have condemned polygamy.

Augustine, an early church leader condemned polygamy in the The Good of Marriage: "it is no longer allowed to take another wife, so as to have more than one wife living."

So basically, polygamy was permissible in the Bible under Mosaic law (ancient Judaism), but not permissible for the first followers of Jesus Christ and all Christians thereafter.

Answer 4

Now, you can look at this by interpolating backwards: In Genesis, the Bible trace family lineages from Cain (from whom where born son of disobedience) and from Seth (from whom those who chose to obey God were birthed). The first recorded polygamy, is of Lamech, who was a descendant of Cains lineage. The Bible records these lineages to show the moral decadence from the choice to disobey God, how sin exponentially grows.
So, as to when the Bible states explicitly that polygamy is wrong, then that can be deduced from 1 Corinthians 7:2, nevertheless it doesn't mean that God approved of it before.

Answer 5

Never. The society is just different from then, Biblically men have wives and concubines. It wasn't untill Paul that there was talk of one wife

Answer 6

Genesis 2:23-24,And Adam said,This is now bone of my bone and flesh of my flesh:she shall be called woman, because she was taken out of man. Therefore shall a man leave his mother, and shall cleave to his WIFE(NOT WIVES!) and they shall be one flesh.(Mark 10:2-9) READ IT!.In verse 5 Yeshua(Jesus) says, For the hardness of your heart he wrote this(bill of divorcement)But from the beginning of creation God made them male and female.For this cause a man shall leave his father and mother,and cleave to his WIFE(not wives);and the TWO (NOT TWELVE)shall be one flesh, so they are no more two but one flesh. What Therefore God has joined together, let no man put asunder. OK!

Answer 7

At some point before Christianity God said enough.
Joseph Smith claimed the Lord said it was alright again but
when the law of the land said no Joseph decided to ignor God and listen to the American Government first.

Answer 8

When the bible said every Man should have 1 wife and every woman 1 husband.

Answer 9

It never was right.
It caused many problems back then.
The practice may have been made even more common because of the shorter life expectancies of men at that time.
Living to 40 years old was not common.
.

Answer 10

It was never intended to be that way. Jesus said a man leaves his parents to cleave to his wife and they become one flesh. Wife, not wives.

Answer 11

When Moses brought the Law.