yahweh,jesus and holyspirit,are one god by nature 3 in persons
here is my point
WHO IS SAVIOR?
God
*Titus 1:3 Our Savior, God
*Titus 3:4 Our Savior, God
* 1 Tim 1:1 God, our Savior
*2 Sam 22:3 God my Savior
*Ps 7:10 God, a Savior
*Ps 17:7 God, o Savior
*Ps 106:21 God their Savior
*Is 43:3 God your Savior
*Is 45:15 God of Israel, a Savior
*Lu 1:47 God my Savior
*1 Tim 2:3 our Savior, God
*1 Tim 4:10 God, who is a Savior
*Titus 2:10 our Savior, God
*Jude 25 the only God our Savior
Jehovah Alone
*Is 43:11 I am Jehovah and besides me there is no savior
*Is 45:21 Jehovah alone is Savior
*Hos 13:4 No savior but Jehovah
*Is 49:26 I, Jehovah, am your Savior and Repurchaser
*Is 60:16 I, Jehovah, am your Savior and Repurchaser
Jesus
*Php 3:20 we are eagerly waiting for a savior, the Lord Jesus Christ
Titus 2:13 we wait for the happy hope and glorious manifestation of the great God and of [the] Savior of us, Jesus Christ.
NWT introduces [the] into the previous verse to obscure that Jesus is called God there.
*Titus 1:4 God [the] Father and Christ Jesus our Savior
*Titus 3:6 Jesus Christ our Savior
2 Pet 1:1 our God and [the] Savior Jesus Christ.
NWT adds [the] to the previous verse to obscure the fact that Jesus is called God there.
*John 4:42 the savior of the world
*Ac 5:31 Chief Agent and Savior
*Ac 13:23 a savior, Jesus
*Ep 5:23 a savior of [this] body
*2 Tim 1:10 our Savior, Christ
*2 Pet 1:11 the everlasting kingdom of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ
*2 Pet 2:20 the Lord and Savior Jesus Christ
*2 Pet 3:2 Who is being spoken of here? Jehovah or Jesus?
*2 Pet 3:18 our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ
*1 John 4:14 the Father has sent forth his Son as Savior of the world
2007-02-05 11:06:14 · 7 answers · asked by Prodical Son 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Clearly, Jehovah empowers Jesus to be humankind's savior.
(1 John 4:14) The Father has sent forth his Son as Savior of the world
(John 3:17) God sent forth his Son into the world... for the world to be saved through him.
(Acts 5:30,31) The God of our forefathers raised up Jesus... God exalted this one as Chief Agent and Savior
2007-02-06 04:31:57 · answer #1 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Heb 1:6 from the NWT from 1961 vs. 1984 translate the same Greek word "proskuneo" (it has a longer form because of the "let") However in Tischendorfs 8th edition the word is προσκυνέω (proskuneo).
Heb 1:6 truly uses (proskynisatosan) προσκυνησάτωσαν. It can be worship as both the OT and LXX agree. If the NWT wants the dogmatic teaching to "to to obeisance" they are saying the same thing as other texts that prove worship, from the OT and the LXX...:)
2014-05-02 21:32:23 · answer #2 · answered by John L. 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
● Why do some Bible versions render Titus 2:13 as if it were referring only to one person, Jesus, calling him God and Savior?
In the New World Translation Titus 2:13 reads: “While we wait for the happy hope and glorious manifestation of the great God and of [the] Savior of us, Christ Jesus.”
However, many Bible translators have rendered the last part of the verse as if it meant only one person, Jesus. For example, An American Translation says: “. . . the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior Christ Jesus.” Such translators often claim that this sort of rendering conforms to a “rule” of Greek grammar. Yet the Trinity doctrine also inclines them toward such a translation.
A literal translation of the Greek phrase is, “glory of the great God and Saviour of us Christ Jesus.” (The Interlinear Greek-English New Testament, by Dr. Alfred Marshall) Observe that there is a single article (the) preceding two nouns (God, Savior) that are joined by the conjunction “and.”
Over a century ago, Granville Sharp formulated what is supposed to be a “rule” applying in such constructions. It asserts that, since the article (the) is not repeated before the second noun (Savior), the two nouns refer to the same person or subject. This would mean that “great God” and “Savior” would both be descriptive of Jesus, as if the meaning were ‘of Jesus Christ, the great God and our Savior.’
Persons inclined to believe in the deity of Jesus sometimes give the impression that the above position is demanded by proper Greek grammar. But that is not so. In fact, the validity of the “rule” being applied in Titus has been much debated by scholars.
For example, Dr. Henry Alford (The Greek Testament, Vol. III) says: “No one disputes that it may mean that which they have interpreted it” as meaning, but he adds that one needs rather to determine ‘what the words do mean.’ And that cannot be settled by grammatical rules.
A Grammar of New Testament Greek (Moulton-Turner, 1963) states about Titus 2:13: “The repetition of the art[icle] was not strictly necessary to ensure that the items be considered separately.” What, though, about ‘Sharp’s rule’? Dr. Nigel Turner admits: “Unfortunately, at this period of Greek we cannot be sure that such a rule is really decisive.” (Grammatical Insights into the New Testament, 1965) As to the Greek construction used, Professor Alexander Buttmann points out: “It will probably never be possible, either in reference to profane literature or to the N[ew] T[estament], to bring down to rigid rules which have no exception, . . . ”—A Grammar of the New Testament Greek.
In The Expositor’s Greek Testament, Dr. N. J. D. White observes: “The grammatical argument . . . is too slender to bear much weight, especially when we take into consideration not only the general neglect of the article in these epistles but the omission of it before” ‘Savior’ in 1 Timothy 1:1; 4:10. And Dr. Alford stresses that in other passages where Paul uses expressions like “God our Savior” he definitely does not mean Jesus, for “the Father and the Son are most plainly distinguished from one another.” (1 Tim. 1:1; 2:3-5) This agrees with the overall teaching of the Bible that Jesus is a created Son who is not equal to his Father.—John 14:28; 1 Cor. 11:3.
Thus, Dr. White concludes: ‘On the whole, then, we decide in favour of the rendering of this passage, appearing of the glory of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ.’ A number of modern translations agree. In the main text or in footnotes they render Titus 2:13 as speaking of two distinct persons, “the great God” who is Jehovah, and his Son, “our Savior, Christ Jesus,” both of whom have glory. (Luke 9:26; 2 Tim. 1:10) See The New American Bible, The Authentic New Testament, The Jerusalem Bible (footnote) and the translations by J. B. Phillips, James Moffatt and Charles K. Williams.
2007-02-05 11:39:07 · answer #3 · answered by dfg q 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The New World Translation is not only very bad Greek, but the translation of the NWT has changed over time to fix "problem" doctrine that didn't correspond with what the Watchtower taught. I have two different versions of the NWT in my library, one from 1961 and the other from 1984. Among other passages, Hebrews 1:6 in the 1961 version speaks of God's angels worshipping Jesus, while the 1984 translation changes "worship" to "to do obeisance (to Jesus)". The Watchtower will say that they received "new light" but if either the Watchtower or their conception of God make mistakes, can what they say really be trusted? The first link below has more questions that JW doctrine and the history of the Watchtower bring about.
2007-02-06 18:22:00 · answer #4 · answered by Pastor Chad from JesusFreak.com 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Both Jehovah and Jesus are Saviors. Jehovah, our Father, is the the only one who is the MAIN source of salvation in accordance to Isa 45:21. The word ALONE itself should make a Trinitarian understand that if there are THREE persons in one God and those THREE are main source of salvation, then it is not ALONE anymore.
Jehovah is the one who sends other saviors who bear his name, and the greatest among he sent is his Only Begotten Son, Jesus.
Rev 7:10 – . 10 And they keep on crying with a loud voice, saying: “Salvation [we owe] to our God, who is seated on the throne, and to the Lamb.”
We owe our salvation to God, Jehovah, the Father, (who is seated on the throne & who is IN heaven) and to his Son, Jesus, the Lamb and Son of God(who was standing & whose name UNDER heaven that has been given among men for us to get saved– Rev 5:6, Acts 4:12) .
Jehovah God is the one saving IN the Heavens.
Psalm 20:6
6 Now I do know that Jehovah certainly saves his anointed one.
He answers him from his holy heavens
With the saving mighty acts of his right hand.
Jehovah God is the one who SENT SAVIORS to earth to save people. See Neh 9:27
Neh 9:27 –
27 For this you gave them into the hand of their adversaries, who kept causing them distress; but in the time of their distress they would cry out to you, and you yourself would hear from the very heavens; and in accord with your abundant mercy you would give them saviors who would save them out of the hand of their adversaries.
Finally, Jehovah, The Father, SENT his only begotten Son to save humanity.
16 “For God loved the world so much that he gave his only-begotten Son, in order that everyone exercising faith in him might not be destroyed but have everlasting life – John 3:16
That’s why Jesus said in John 14:1 – “Exercise faith in God, exercise faith also in me”
John 17:3 - 3 This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ
2007-02-06 02:10:32 · answer #5 · answered by trustdell1 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I'll make this simple.
Genesis 2:24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.
According to your theory husband and wife would be freaks after getting married since they "shall be one flesh".
It means they agree as one. Why is this so hard to understand?
Not many people want to tackle your question.
2007-02-05 11:13:54 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The Lord, He is the God the Lord, He is the God.
2016-01-28 19:42:35 · answer #7 · answered by Brother Samuel 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋