Matthew 27:46?

Question

"My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"

Hmm... But that should be translated as "Myself, myself, why have I forsaken me?"

WTF?

Answer 1

When Jesus cried out on the cross, "My God, my God, why have you abandoned me?" he was reciting the first words of the 22nd Psalm, one of the lamentation psalms.

But the psalm ends on a positive note with, "And I will live for the LORD."

With love in Christ.

Answer 2

Was Jesus not disappointed at the very end of his earthly course? Did he not then cry out: “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”

When Jesus said those words, evidently he was fulfilling a prophecy concerning his death. (Psalm 22:1) In a qualified sense, Jesus could also have meant that Jehovah had removed his protection and let his Son die a painful and shameful death so as to test his integrity to the limit.

As Jesus was dying on the torture stake, about the ninth hour, or about 3:00 p.m., he called out: “E′li, E′li, la′ma sa·bach·tha′ni?” (“My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”) Bystanders thought that he was calling for Elijah. Perhaps they misunderstood Jesus’ words because his speech was indistinct as a result of his intense suffering or because his dialect differed from theirs. In calling out to his heavenly Father, acknowledging him as his God, Jesus fulfilled Psalm 22:1.

Jesus was well aware that he would have to “go to Jerusalem and suffer many things, and be killed, and on the third day be raised up.” In heaven the Son of God had observed even imperfect humans experience torturous deaths while maintaining their integrity. So there just is no reason to believe that Jesus, a perfect human, would be seized with fear over what he faced; nor would death on a stake suggest to him that his Father had rejected him. Jesus knew in advance “what sort of death he was about to die,” that is, death by impalement. (John 12:32, 33) He was sure, too, that on the third day he would be raised up. How, then, could Jesus say that God had forsaken him?

Answer 3

try here