Italian as we know it today actually derived from one of the dialects spoken in Italy...the one from Florence, which came to be formalized as such in the first years of the 14th century through the works of Dante, Petrarch and Boccaccio...the earliest texts which can definitely be called Italian date back to 960...Spanish is also derived from one of the dialects of Spain or Castilian and the first written document that contained words in what could be recognized as Spanish dates back to 964 although the first grammar of the language was written in the 14th century...all romance languages come from Vulgar Latin so it's not that Spanish came from French and Italian from Spanish...they all formed more or less at the same time...
2007-02-05 09:13:19
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answer #1
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answered by Queen of the Rÿche 5
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Spanish, French and Italian are all Latin-based languages. Latin originated in Italy, so modern Italian would have developed first, and the Roman Empire would have spread out to France and Spain and Portugal next, respectively. The Germanic tribes kept most of their influence on the other Germanic languages like German, Dutch, English and the Nordic Languages.
2007-02-05 09:49:45
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answer #2
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answered by FUNdie 7
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In terms of national sovereignty, I'd have to agree with Uncle John: Italy as a specific country developed after Spain.
In terms of languages, all the languages that you speak of are considered Romance languages, and they are descended from the Vulgar Latin of the Roman Empire rather than one from the other. After the fall of Rome, invading tribes in Western Europe assimilated the Latin language and retained it as they spread out in nearby regions. By the Middle Ages, the Vulgar Latin that had been initially spread among these peoples had transformed into more localized vernaculars with distinct differences from each other. These languages became increasingly different up to the point that they are today. Modern romance languages include Italian, Spanish, French, Portuguese, Catalan, Romanian, and numerous local dialects.
2007-02-05 09:15:46
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answer #3
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answered by phildin21488 2
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Spanish, French and Italian are all Latin-located languages. Latin originated in Italy, so extremely-present day Italian might desire to have outfitted first, and the Roman Empire might desire to have unfold out to France and Spain and Portugal next, respectively. The Germanic tribes saved lots of their have an result on at distinctive Germanic languages like German, Dutch, English and the Nordic Languages.
2016-09-28 11:24:47
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answer #4
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answered by ? 4
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Italy as a country is a fairly recent entity, only coming into existence in the late 1800's. Spain, on the other hand, has existed as a kingdom for 800 years. On that basis, you'd have to the Spanish, since there was no Italy as a united country.
Now Romans (speaking Latin) lived in that land and had a great civilization while Spain was essentially a series of tribal kingdoms. But if you use the terms spanish and italian - I think you have to say the Spanish
By the way - in terms of language - Latin came first and the French language developed from that. In French, for instance, whenever you have an accent circumflex, it indicates that there used to be an "s" - the Latin word word for window is fenestra. In French - fenetre, with a circumflex over the 2nd e. Spanish likewise came from the Latin.
2007-02-05 09:10:35
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answer #5
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answered by Uncle John 6
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What is your question? What language came first?
Or who came first to this Continent?
2007-02-05 09:05:05
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answer #6
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answered by 1978nevaeh 3
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you are cute...I assume you look just like your avatar..:) I think Italian came first because pizza was the first known food...2 points
2007-02-05 09:06:16
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answer #7
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answered by Steelhead 5
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Italian came 1st ofcourse ...
Remember Rome ....
Then the spaniard become christian country
2007-02-05 09:05:55
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answer #8
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answered by DlCK Chenney 2
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