2007-02-05 05:38:33 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
If he existed, the Romans killed him, but it could not be written that way, esp due to later Romans adopting version 2 of his religion, with extra pagan goodness added in as flavouring. Again, the reason that the Christians went after the non Jews was Because the Jews were not, and after 2000 years still have not, buying the stuff being shoveled at them.
2007-02-05 05:46:35 · answer #1 · answered by XX 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
whoever told you that was lieing. Jesus' intention was to teach and be with sinners weather gentile or Jew. Jesus knew that his people would resent and never except him (the Jews). he Evan said that healthy people didn't' need or go to see the doctor and that was the same with Jesus i didn't come for the Jews and Christians only but for everyone. he never changed his Mind about anything or anyone (as you might know Jesus knew what was going to happen way before it actually took place)
2007-02-05 13:50:56 · answer #2 · answered by sasha 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He didn't change His mind, He was following the plans laid out before the foundation of the world. He is patient, and waited until the Gentiles were ready, and until the Jews had denied Him. Paul says this is the time God is using to make the Jews jealous so they will return and accept Him as their God.
2007-02-05 13:41:51 · answer #3 · answered by Emmy 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It was to the jews that he did most of his teaching. I don't believe that Jesus had a whole lot of contact with Roman soldiers as a philosopher.
Teaching the gentiles was the goal of Paul. He desired their money and their power.
2007-02-05 13:45:00 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
during His life it was compasion. After the cross it was the plan. He gave the Jews an offer and they refused it and thus He no longer operated through them. They were assigned the task of converting the peoples of the world and they decided that being chosen was something to be proud of and made them exclusive and so they did not reach out which was what they were chosen to do.
If you missed this then you do not understand scripture much because this is like a crucial point. Look up cursed generation and read around those areas.
2007-02-06 05:57:29 · answer #5 · answered by icheeknows 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was cause He came for the Jews first, but the prophecy was for Jew and Gentile, both.
2007-02-05 13:42:17 · answer #6 · answered by màrrach 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It was always to the Jew first and then to the Gentiles.We killed Christ,all of us with our sin,past present and future,Jew and Gentile....and He wanted to die for us ,don't try to lay blame.
2007-02-05 13:42:31 · answer #7 · answered by AngelsFan 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
we all killed christ, I did, you did the pharisees the Jews, the romans he died for all sin, the gentiles were those out in the world at that time that were getting in to killing Jews, he wanted to give the word to the Jews first I believe.
2007-02-05 13:44:36 · answer #8 · answered by Slider 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
He was to go first to the Jews, then the gentiles. He was supposed to save the "lost sheep of Israel" who had "strayed" first.
2007-02-05 13:40:40 · answer #9 · answered by . 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, he did not,
The Jews did not kill Him.
The San Hedrin and the Pharisees killed Him.
The Fact that they were Jews has no bearing on it and means nothing.
2007-02-05 13:43:05 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋