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Jeremiah 8:8
How do ye say, We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us? Lo, certainly in vain made he it; the pen of the scribes is in vain.

Jeremiah 8:8
'How can you say, "We are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?

2007-02-04 13:17:20 · 22 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

22 answers

He's not speaking of the "scribes" who wrote the Scriptures but of those who twisted what was written to their own false purposes.

2007-02-04 13:28:01 · answer #1 · answered by Dysthymia 6 · 2 1

What exactly is it that these scribes are doing? If you read the larger context you will see clearly that the scribes, priests and prophets are telling the people that everything is okay, that the Law is being kept, and that there will be peace because "God is with us", His people. But they are lying. It doesn't say their lying pens are making the Torah into a lie by altering its text. It says they are writing things that are false as though they came from God's law and teaching them to the people.

A scribe in that time wasn't so much a copyist as a teacher and expounder. These lying teachers are telling the people "peace, peace" although the true prophet tells them there is no peace and will be no peace. God has announced His judgment on Jerusalem for its idolatery and disobedience. The enemies are coming and God will NOT help. This verse has nothing to do with altering the books, it has to do with teaching false practices and giving false prophecies and saying these are based on the Lord's law. The law of God which clearly speaks of punishement for sin is disregarded and the people are told about the promises of God's goodness -- which are in the Law too, but each has its conditions.

What is the reason for this false security? Verse 10 identifies the the people (including the scribes, priests and "prophets") as greedy for gain. But the people will only gladly pay them for good news or better the lies of "favorable horoscopes" and not for the true messages of judgment and calls to repentance coming from God's eternal word. So, because of greed they trade the truth of God's word for the gains that come from the lies of false promises.

In 7:1-29 Jeremiah announces God's judgment against Jerusalem because of their sin and disobedience. The people in Jerusalem are kept in false security that nobody would be able to touch them because this is the place of God's Temple and surely God would miraculously rescue them as He has done previously (see e.g. Isaiah 37:36). Jeremiah delivers God's word against this false security in 7:4-15.

The "lying pen of the scribes" is guilty not of changing the text of the law, but of false application of it. They are giving the wrong interpreation out of personal greed and because they fear men more than God. In effect, Jeremiah says that they don't "have" the Law because they don't KEEP the Law. It is not the physical presence of the Law or of the Temple that will avert God's wrath, but only obedience to his word. They did not corrupt the physical text of it, but they "handled" it falsely as 8:8 says. If the text they were working with hadn't been the Law anymore, then they could not have been accused of mishandling it ("it" = the Law).

"Having" the Law is no advantage whatsoever if you don't obey it. The endresult is the same as if you don't even have it. This is the consistent message of the Bible in many, many places.

2007-02-04 21:37:46 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

The Bible did not yet exist in those days. Jeremiah received his call from God around 626 BC. The Pentateuch was written after the Babylonian exile (587-538). The parts of the Bible which were already written never left the library.
For the people the word of God consisted of the traditions kept by the priests and their decisions which applied the law of God.
Have a blessed and peaceful day

2007-02-04 21:43:07 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Many scriptures are misinterpreted by people who do not understand it. Without the divine inspiration and edification of the Holy Spirit, one cannot understand the bible.

2 Corinthians 4:3,4 - But if our gospel be hid, it is hid to them that are lost: 4 - In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of C hrist, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

2007-02-04 21:26:19 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

The author being without a doubt led by the Holy Spirit, had the exact same feelings that you or I would have if we were asked to do the same. He was a man capable of sin doing as best he could to do what His Father asked of Him.

2007-02-04 21:28:48 · answer #5 · answered by rezany 5 · 0 1

When the Bible was put together from various scripts, the church edited it, there should be 20 gospels, but most were conflicting the belief of the church at that time.
So ONLY the parts that the church wanted was included.
So is it corrupted?
YES, you CANNOT base ANY judgement on a partial or incomplete work!

2007-02-04 21:26:51 · answer #6 · answered by tattie_herbert 6 · 1 2

Hon, the bible has been written, copied, mis-copied, changed as political powers saw the need, omitted from, added to, translated, changed, reversed, yaydaydayday...... from several languages and in its more or less present form beginning about 1612..... that is more than 2000 years for errors to happen.... get it???????????

2007-02-04 22:32:34 · answer #7 · answered by April 6 · 2 0

The bible....(no) but man (yes)
It isn't the Bible that is wrong. Its mans teachings of the Bible that have been wrong..
Man has changed and taken out words (Gods name) out of the bible. However if you read the bible you can still come to see what the truth in the bible is..

2007-02-04 21:28:15 · answer #8 · answered by mrs.mom 4 · 1 1

this is the exact reason why the bible stayed in latin for so many years.
so these sorts of questions don't crop up

you just gotta interpret it right

"don't believe everything you read" is better

2007-02-04 21:44:49 · answer #9 · answered by sleepindragon 1 · 0 0

So the bible's translated differently by different people. Even the decision which books to include in it was up to the editors. So?

2007-02-04 21:20:55 · answer #10 · answered by eldad9 6 · 3 2

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