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Please explain the biblical references for the lineage that connects Jesus to the house of David that does not involve lineage through Joseph. Clearly, Jesus being conceived by the Virgin Mary precludes that Jesus can be tied to David through Joseph.

2007-02-04 09:35:59 · 13 answers · asked by Answer Flop 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Can you provide me with the reference where it clearly states that Heli was Mary's father? It is not clear to me at all, it reads as though Heli was Joseph's father. Is there another reference to Heli?

2007-02-05 12:39:58 · update #1

13 answers

In Matthew Joseph’s genealogy is given, notice that it says “Jacob begat Joseph”.

Matt.1:16 And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.

In Luke Mary’s genealogy is given.

Luk 3:23 And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli,

The words “was supposed” (nomizo) in Greek means “as reckoned by law”. Joseph was Heli’s son in law and “begat” is not used.

Mary’s Father Heli’s genealogy is of Judah or the king line.

Mary’s mothers’ name is not given but we have some clues as to her lineage.

Luke 1:5 There was in the days of Herod, the king of Judaea, a certain priest named Zacharias, of the course of Abia: and his wife was of the daughters of Aaron, and her name was Elisabeth.

Elisabeth was of the daughters of Aaron or Levite.

Luke 1:36 And, behold, thy cousin Elisabeth, she hath also conceived a son in her old age: and this is the sixth month with her, who was called barren.

The word “cousin” (suggenes) in Greek means “kinswomen”.

Mary’s mother’s genealogy is of Levi or levetical priest line.

Hence Jesus Christ is our King and high priest.

Heb.5:10 Called of God an high priest after the order of Melchisedec.

Psa.110:4 The LORD hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek.

Melchizedek (malkiy-tsedeq) in Hebrew means “King of Righteousness”.

2007-02-04 09:40:42 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4 2

I suppose via his "stepdad" Joseph. The argument that the gospels give both lineages is wrong. Both Luke and Matthew clearly state that the lineage is through Joseph (neither of them is Mary's). This argument is usually used to go around the fact that they don't agree and therefore make a contradiction in the Bible.

"...and Jacob the father of Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom Jesus was born." (Matthew 1:16).

"He [Jesus] was the son (as was thought) of Joseph son of Heli."
(Luke 3:23).

2007-02-04 10:07:46 · answer #2 · answered by The Doctor 7 · 0 0

This is yet another inconsistency and absurdity of the Bible, that are so endlessly fascinating to non-believers, and so endlessly ignored by the believer.

In the early days, Christianity was essentially a new version of Judaism, and was being marketed to Jews. For this reason, it was felt important that he be connected to the House of David to support early Christians contention that he was the promised "messiah". There are 2 different genealogies; the Bible lists 2 different men as being Josephs' father. Jewish culture was patriarchal, and so it was the male blood line that was important. Women were chattel in Jewish culture. There was no genealogy for Mary in the bible, in spite of some Christians contention that she was from the House of David as well by deliberately misinterpreting the reference to Heli.

There is no archaeological evidence that a King David actually existed either, but that is a whole other topic.

Now at the same time some Xian writers were making it more palatable to Jews, others were trying to make it more appealing to Gentiles. Hence the dropping of the "old laws" such as circumcision etc. Also, Gentiles were quite familiar with stories of virgin births, and man-gods, from stories of Osiris and Mithra (just 2 among MANY such stories) and so a "man-god born of a virgin" story was created and tacked on to the growing myth of Jesus.
Here are a few good sites if you want some of the details and references.
http://www.bidstrup.com/bible.htm
http://www.jesuspuzzle.com/
http://home.earthlink.net/~pgwhacker/ChristianOrigins/

2007-02-04 09:47:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

The messiah was to come through the offspring of King David or through his family line. This was one identifying mark by which the Jews would recognize their messiah. The really cool thing about that is Solomon's temple where all the geneological records were kept was destroyed in 70 AD shortly after Jesus' ressurection. That means there is no way the Jews can connect anyone with David now suggesting that Jesus was indeed their messiah! The Gospel of Matthew is all you need to read to understand the answer to your question for Matthew was written to help Jews make the connection between Jesus, David, and the patriarchs.

2016-05-24 06:18:55 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Jesus' genealogy is listed twice in the gospels: Luke and Matthew.
One is the line back to David through Joseph, and the other is through Mary.

Joseph's lineage:
Matthew 1 mentions that Jacob begat Joseph, the husband of Mary.

Mary's lineage:
Luke 3:23 follows the lineage of Mary, backwards to David: In the King James Version, pay close attention: it says " And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli,..."
It does NOT say that Jesus was begotten of Joseph. Literally, Joseph was the son-in-law of Heli.

Jacob was Joseph's father.
Heli was Mary's father.
Both parents are of the bloodline of David, one through Solomon, the other through Nathanael, and moreso, the bloodline of Judah:

2007-02-04 09:52:33 · answer #5 · answered by Bob L 7 · 0 2

Listen I am not a Bible scholar but I have read a lot of material regarding Judaism and it`s early history,Joseph was of the linage of King David,and so was Mary.
Now in those times and even now if a child is born it is considered a Jew only if it`s Mother is Jewish,it does not rely on the Fathers nationality,so Jesus is a descendant of David directly through His Mother.

2007-02-04 09:44:11 · answer #6 · answered by Sentinel 7 · 2 0

Joseph was Jesus' step dad. Jesus was living at his house. Also Mary was from the house of David.

The Messiah will be of the seed of Abraham, the son of Isaac, the son of Jacob, the tribe of Judah, in the family line of Jesse, of the house of David.

David had ten sons, eliminating nine out of ten male descendents of David. It is obvious that the Messiah was someone extremely specific and that the pool of candidates for Messiah is incredibly small. Not just anyone could make that claim and be taken seriously.

2007-02-04 09:39:43 · answer #7 · answered by SeeTheLight 7 · 1 1

that is because he is tied into the lineage of David through Mary. But back when the lines were kept they only kept the mens lines. the womans were not considered important

2007-02-04 09:40:54 · answer #8 · answered by Thumbs down me now 6 · 1 1

Both Joseph (legal) and Mary(biological) had ties to the house of David.
One gospel shows it through Mary the other through Joseph.
You are uninformed.

2007-02-04 09:39:47 · answer #9 · answered by Jeanmarie 7 · 3 1

Jesus was called the son of David because he was the heir to the throne of King David. That is the Grail Throne. Queen Elizabeth II now sits in the throne of King David. Queen Mary of Scotts was the heir to the throne of King David, but was beheaded for the throne by Queen Elizabeth I

2007-02-04 09:39:16 · answer #10 · answered by Treee T 1 · 0 4

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