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Church people generally believe Jesus is a God, so when he said "Let this predicament remove, nevertheless not my will but thine be done." Who was he praying to?

If Jesus is a God, then he was a God praying to a God? The other God he claimed to be his father.
What did the other God think of that?

And you church people out there, don't revile me for asking a question that's already been asked. And if you want to comment on my intelligence, don't bother answering.

Before you start, I don't even claim to be the brightest troll under the bridge.

2007-02-04 09:08:05 · 23 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

23 answers

Not all 'church people' believe Jesus is God, only the Christians.

For the rest of us, he was simply praying to the real God.

2007-02-04 09:14:55 · answer #1 · answered by Sun: supporting gay rights 7 · 2 1

Jesus knew that he was not equal to his Father. That is why, time and again, Jesus made statements such as the following: “The Son cannot do a single thing of his own initiative, but only what he beholds the Father doing.” (John 5:19) “I have come down from heaven to do, not my will, but the will of him that sent me.” (John 6:38) “What I teach is not mine, but belongs to him that sent me.” (John 7:16) “The Father is greater than I am.” (John 14:28) “I know him [God], because I am a representative from him, and that One sent me forth.” (John 7:29) The one who does the sending cannot be the same person. It is only logical. As Jesus expressed it: “A slave is not greater than his master, nor is one that is sent forth greater than the one that sent him.”—John 13:16.

1 Corinthians 11:3: talks about headship. It says the head of woman is the man, the head of man is the Christ, the head of Christ is God. This scripture also helps us to see that they are not one and the same but separate entities Father and son.

Jesus also mentioned God’s superiority when the mother of two of the disciples asked that her sons sit one at the right and the other at the left of Jesus when he came into his Kingdom. He answered: “This sitting down at my right hand and at my left is not mine to give.” (Matthew 20:23) If Jesus had been Almighty God, it would have been his to give. But it was not. It was his Father’s to give.

Moses was told no one can see God and live. 1 John 4:12 says “At no time has anyone beheld God.” If Jesus were God wouldn't that apply to him too? And yet Jesus walked this earth.

Here is something else that you should also keep in mind. When Jesus died, he was in the tomb for three days. If he were God, then Habakkuk 1:12 is wrong when it says: “O my God, my Holy One, you do not die.” But the Bible says that Jesus did die and was unconscious in the tomb. And who resurrected Jesus from the dead? If he was truly dead, he could not have resurrected himself.

When Jesus gave his prophecy about the last days he stated: “But of that day or that hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.” (Mark 13:32, RS, Catholic edition) Had Jesus been the equal Son part of a Godhead, he would have known what the Father knows. But Jesus did not know, for he was not equal to God.

There are many more scriptures to prove that Jesus is indeed God’s son but space would not permit it. In view of these facts the ‘Trinity ‘doctrine cannot be true. Do you know what the scriptures say about the truth, it will set you free, so keep on asking questions that’s the way to learn.

2007-02-04 10:16:37 · answer #2 · answered by loladrewblue 4 · 2 0

The explanation will probably get me named as the stupidest troll under the bridge.

As is also true today the Spirit that Created all things communicates with and lives as a part of the lives of those who ask for his presence. The human Jesus (not his real name of course) did not want to suffer the things he knew the Pharisees had planned for him. Any of us in that situation would probably have prayed the same thing. Also he knew that he would experience a separation from the Spirit that he had experienced for at least 3 1/2 years. That is a daunting experience. Having had a slightly similar experience for about 1/2 hour I can only imagine his dread of what was to come.

From what he told his disciples in John 14 the transformation into the Spirit was not complete until after his resurrection. To understand that we will have to study it throughout a significant part of the first thousands of years of eternity. Maybe all eternity. Hard to say.

2007-02-04 09:21:06 · answer #3 · answered by Bullfrog21 6 · 0 1

Jesus was praying to his father Jehovah, the Almighty God. The Scriptures do not support the "trinity doctrine." Deuteronomy 6:4 "Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah." Isaiah 42:8 "I am Jehovah. That is my name; and to no one else shall I give my own glory." Philippians 2:5-7 "keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God's form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God. No, but he emptied himself and took a slave's form and came to be in the likeness of men." 1 Corinthians 15:28 "When all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone." Psalm 83:18 "That people may know that you, whose name is Jehovah, You alone are the Most High over all the earth." Jesus works in harmony with his heavenly father, Jehovah. But, Jehovah and Jesus are two distinct individuals. Jehovah being the Creator, and Jesus is his creation. Here is an example: When a man marries a woman and they become one flesh, they are still two distinct individuals but work together in harmony as one.

2007-02-04 10:22:11 · answer #4 · answered by Elisha Evangelia 3 · 1 0

Jesus Christ IS NOT the Father. He is one with the Father. He WAS NOT praying to himself while He was in the garden. He was praying to His Father. The teaching that says "Jesus was praying to Himself" is taught by many "Oneness Pentecostals" (AKA: Pentecostal Apostolic Churches). Other Christians do not teach this. When Jesus said, "When you've seen me you've seen the Father.", He didn't mean physically. He meant his works had displayed the Glory of the Father. After witnessing these works, a glorious picture of who the Father is, should have emerged cognitively, not physically. Doctrine should not be built on what the bible doesn't say, only what it does say. While the Bible doesn't use the word "trinity", it doesn't use the word "rapture" either. However, the Bible is replete with examples of these concepts. When Jesus said He couldn't do anything without the Father, he was simply referring to the unipluralism of His existence with God or His oneness with the Father. They are on one accord at all times!

2016-03-29 04:56:30 · answer #5 · answered by Brianna 4 · 0 0

The answer is in what some refer to as the "kenosis", or emptying, from the noun form of the Greek word appearing in this passage.
"Let this mindset be found in you, which was also in Christ Jesus, who being found in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to cling to, but EMPTIED HIMSELF, taking the form of a slave, and coming to be in the likeness of men, and being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself, becoming obedient, even to the point of death, even death on a cross." (Philippians 2:5-8)
Again in Hebrews 2:9 we read "But we do see Him, who has been made for a little while lower than the angels, namely, Jesus, because of the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honor, that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone."
Jesus Christ, although He existed before all creation (see John 1:1-5;14), became a human being, so that as a representative of the human race He might redeem man back to God through His sacrificial death on the cross. As a man, He was as completely subject to and dependent upon God, His Father, as any other man. So much so, I believe, that if the Father had not raised Him from the dead, he would not have been able to raise Himself. Even the miracles He did while on earth, He did not perform by His own power, but by the power of the Holy Spirit indwelling Him. Therefore He said "the Son can do nothing of Himself, unless it is something he sees the Father doing.." (John 5:19)

2007-02-04 09:31:10 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Jesus is the son of God. so when he said not my will but thine be done he was talking to God his father. i dont know if this means anything but i am one of those church people and i dont think this is a bad question. and it shows that you are intelegent to ask a question that confuses many people because of the way they twist the verses in the Bible.

2007-02-04 09:15:23 · answer #7 · answered by Thumbs down me now 6 · 2 0

Jesus was praying to his Father Jehovah. Jesus is not God. he is the son of God. how can you pray to yourself? Jesus is seating at the right hand of Jehovah in the heaven

2007-02-04 12:35:23 · answer #8 · answered by lover of Jehovah and Jesus 7 · 1 0

As a Christian Preacher, writer and Evangelist I run into this question more often than you may think.
First of all Jesus is not GOD, He is the SON of GOD. I know there seems to be a movement where Jesus is god but in doing that they are denying the Father.
Christ himself, when asked, teach us to pray began it with, Our Father, which art in Heaven.
As far as who was Christ praying to, HIS FATHER, GOD , which art in heaven.

2007-02-04 09:13:54 · answer #9 · answered by drg5609 6 · 3 1

God

2007-02-04 09:12:11 · answer #10 · answered by Heaven's Messenger 6 · 1 1

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