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I recently learnt that it is inaccurate to describe Christ’s conception as Immaculate, as that refers to The Blessed Virgin's conception, i.e. conception without original sin. Do we refer to Christ’s conception as incarnation- and that's it? I sometimes here people saying something like 'who’s the father? He can't be immaculately conceived.' Isn't this the wrong word to use, as the Immaculate Conception does not mean conceived without a father, as in Jesus' case. Or am I mistaken.

2007-02-04 05:27:22 · 22 answers · asked by Pichka 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

I really hate to do this, I'm not one to report even sick people like some of those here, however if you keep insulting I will have no choice but to do so. I can take many insults to my faith, but insulting the Blessed Ever Virgin Theotokos Mary is somethiing that makes me crazy. I will not take it. So be respectful or don't asnwer.

2007-02-04 05:35:58 · update #1

Ray. What’s the point of all that text you copied and pasted. Did it answer my question? FYI Mary did have something to do with Christ creation, His human form ONLY though. Of coarse she did since he got his cells and DNA from her!!! And since the Church maintains that the two natures of Christ are inseparable, it is rightful to call Mary the Mother of God.

2007-02-04 05:44:41 · update #2

LOL Red Rox, I have no problem with he dogma; I'm catholic, but I was just asking about the wording.

2007-02-04 05:50:56 · update #3

22 answers

The incarnation is correct. As you have said the Immaculate Conception is nothing to do with the virgin birth. Unfortunately, many people, including journalists who should know better, use the term to refer to the conception and virgin birth of Jesus.
The Immaculate Conception refers to the belief, originating in the early days of Christianity, that Mary did not inherit original sin. This was finally declared a dogma of the Catholic Church in the nineteenth century.

2007-02-04 08:18:16 · answer #1 · answered by A.M.D.G 6 · 1 0

There are some really nasty people on here huh?

I was taught the Immaculate Conception refers to Mary, conceived without sin. This is not about the Virgin Birth. It happened so Mary would be the one to conceive by the Holy Ghost God's Son Jesus

2007-02-04 13:57:31 · answer #2 · answered by June smiles 7 · 4 0

According to the Catholic Church b.v.M (blessed Virgin Mary) is the immaculate Conception, not Jesus.

2007-02-05 06:51:29 · answer #3 · answered by cymry3jones 7 · 1 0

The blessed Virgin Mary was born to Parents. As an infant she was placed in the care of the Holy Prophet of the Time mylord Zakariyya. It was my lord Jesus Christ who had an immaculate birth with the Will of God, without a father. His coming and going out of Earth is the Mystery .

2007-02-04 14:49:55 · answer #4 · answered by sunamwal 5 · 2 0

The title Immaculate Conception is what Mary gave as her name to St. Bernadette with her appearance at Lourdes. It means she was conceived without original sin so that she would be worthy to carry Jesus in her womb. As you know Jesus was conceived and became incarnate (made man) through the power of the Holy Spirit. He is truly human and truely divine. His two natures are inseparable. Asking this question to some people on here is like 'throwing pearls to swine'. They don't understand.

2007-02-04 15:49:16 · answer #5 · answered by Plato 5 · 2 0

I always refer to it as the Virgin Birth. God had to by pass man because he had the genetic sin gene (inherited sin) if you like. And this also allowed the fact that Jesus was 100% man and 100% God. Mary did not pass sin on down her line because the sin is passed down the male line. Mary was not unsinful but just blessed . The passage that refers to conception is;

The Holy Spirit will come upon you and the power of the most high will over shadow you, therefore the child to be born will be called holy, the Son of God.
Luke 1:35

Creator is the key here.

2007-02-04 14:02:35 · answer #6 · answered by : 6 · 1 0

I get my knowledge of spiritual things from the Bible...or WHAT IS frequently believed to be God's words to us.
So, based on that, I believe it was an "Immaculate conception"based on the account" in the Bible. God is described as "all powerful," and can "do" ANYTHING. So I have no problem with Mary conceiving with out human intercourse.. In addition to that, Mary and Joseph were devout followers of God, and in their belief...and in the 10 commandments, the act ofsexual communion out of wedlock , was against his command.

2007-02-04 13:36:38 · answer #7 · answered by In my life it is access to God 1 · 1 1

Part of our faith, is the belief in miracles..Mary being pregnant was a miracle..It is just what we believe and it is FAITH..Mary was the Immaculate Conception because she was born without original sin. Jesus' conception and birth was a miracle..Just accept it and believe it as part of your faith..There are questions that we will not know the answers to until we are in Heaven..again..part of FAITH..Don't let any of these people sway what you think or beleive..Everyone is entitled to what they believe. Stick to your beleifs and live true to them.

2007-02-04 13:45:11 · answer #8 · answered by Red Sox lover 6 · 3 0

I refer you to Wikipedia's articles on the Immaculate Conception and the Virgin Birth.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Immaculate_conception

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virgin_birth

2007-02-04 13:34:43 · answer #9 · answered by Another Nickname 1 · 0 0

It is perfectly feasible to get someone who is a virgin pregnant.


joseph and Mary were a couple and a young one...


Its not logically possible that a couple in love would not at least be touchy, feely affectionate and semi sexaul like kissing etc...

Thats what people do in love.


Now whilst their may not have had intercause but any reasonable sex ed will cover things like girls sitting on sperm say from bj jacking off, sperm geting on fingers then on genitals, drips or dribbles getting into the target zone can all get pregnant.


Joseph like any male would have tossed off and the couple would reasonably have got to 2nds to third base.


It is not sinful its natural...


not is it a sin to speak of these people this way as its saying they are human and thats what hums do.



Just like me saying most of your daughters will suck dick, your sons will toss off and be facinated by girls breasts...


Neither is discusting or perverted as its true... prove it wrong...


And the sooner people get real the better.

2007-02-04 20:11:57 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

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