The word 'fishes' is quite correct in classical English language, but the more normal plural would be 'fish.'
As someone who writes a lot, I would suggest that the justification for the former would really be to do with prosaic use of language.
For example, if I were to replace bottles with fish, the following would be unsatisfactory:-
Ten little fish, drying on the wall (repeat)
and if one fish should accidentally fall,
there'd be nine fish drying on the wall.
That's rather ugly language isn't it?
Try the following however:-
Ten little fishes, drying on a wall, (repeat)
and if one of the fishes, should accidentally fall,
ther'd be nine little fishes, drying on the wall
Someone mentioned the Bible, and of course, those who translated the Bible used the prose and language of Shakespeare and his contemporaries. That is why it is so beautiful to read or recite.
2007-02-04 07:13:15
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answer #1
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answered by musonic 4
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English is a dynamic language that changes almost from generation to generation. We no longer say, "I walk upon the road." It's now "I walk on the road." And that's a recent change.
Fishes is an older form of the word fish (plural) which was common during the writing and has become a traditional and familiar way of speaking with a Scriptural connotation. Ergo familiarity and comfort.
2007-02-04 05:26:36
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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The plural of fish uses an 'indefinite article' form. Like other things you don't count: water, sugar... When you ask: 'Do fish swim?' You are asking about fish in general. When it is: 'a' fish, you know it is about ' one' particular fish. In cases like this it is always: Does a...(fish, person...) The answer: 'Yes they does', will never occur at ANY time because the pronoun (they in this case) requires a fixed verb/adverb.
2016-05-24 04:09:28
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answer #3
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answered by Elizabeth 4
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There is no plural of fish! It is fish either way. Don't forget the bible was written thousands of years ago and language has changed somewhat since then although am not sure that there are fishes in the bible as you state.
2007-02-04 07:25:31
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answer #4
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answered by Stephanie C 3
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You always say fish . The Bible doesnt always have correct grammar, remember, it was written in biblical times , much different from now. Fishes can be used as a verb and thats it, such as Suzy fishes for Shark , but she never gets it. Fishes is a present tense verb talking about fishing. But fish is always the plural of fish , you just change the adjective in front to imply that it is plural. I saw some fish . ( plural ) I saw a fish. ( singular)
2007-02-04 05:25:39
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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The plural for fish is fish. Fishes can be a verb when you say a sports fisherman fishes for marlin. Language in the Bible is not the common language we use today.
2007-02-04 05:26:40
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answer #6
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answered by drocker999 2
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I think you can say fishes if you are describing the action of fishing eg the way he fishes is... But if you're talking about the number of fish then the plural is still fish.
2007-02-04 05:27:18
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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One fish
Two fish
Three fish
but to have too many fishes sounds a little fishy to me.
2007-02-04 05:27:32
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answer #8
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answered by CeCe M 3
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Though often used interchangeably, these words actually mean different things. 'Fish' is used either as singular noun or to describe a group of specimens from a single species. 'Fishes' describes a group containing more than one species. Hence, as plurals, these words could be used thus:
'My aquarium contains three different fishes: guppies, platies, and swordtails.'
'The North Atlantic stock of Gadus morhua is estimated to contain several million fish.'
2007-02-04 06:45:21
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answer #9
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answered by eurotraveller 3
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In modern English, 'fish' is used as a plural if they are all the same species, and 'fishes' is used to mean more than one species.
2007-02-04 09:07:16
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answer #10
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answered by sudonym x 6
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