Well, she would have to have been in a mikvah at least once after having her first period, and not if she's married. that's a SERIOUS sin!
2007-02-05 14:12:08
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answer #1
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answered by וואלה 5
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If this woman is religious enough, she will not have sex until her marriage with a Jewish man.
Since Jewish men don't have foreskin, I don't see a situation in which an observant Jewish woman have sex with a man who has no foreskin.
But you can always ask her; it depends on how religious she is...
2007-02-04 05:46:23
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answer #2
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answered by yotg 6
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I'm pretty sure the rule can be bent, PROVIDED, that the male with all the head cheese stop by the local Rite Aid and buy a vibrating penis ring. He could the "pull the wool" over everyone and fake it by containing the excess down near the equally smelly testicles of said uncircumsed male.
2007-02-06 11:20:46
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answer #3
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answered by juan.hunglo 2
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Idk. it is unusual because the following in England and that i imagine maximum of Europe, the adult adult males are not frequently circumcised. I not in any respect realised individuals were so grossed out with assistance from it until eventually i seen an answer on the following in the previous. perchance they're no longer used to an uncircumcised penis so that they locate it unusual?
2016-11-02 05:10:35
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Ew. Why would she want to? It's so much more sanitary when it's been circumcised.
2007-02-03 01:57:26
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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if that is true, one solution would be to tell her that a true God would not let a thin piece of skin keep two people who love each other apart
2007-02-03 01:52:47
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Depends on how Orthodox she is?
2007-02-03 01:56:11
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answer #7
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answered by MJ 6
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Absolutely not.
2007-02-03 01:57:12
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answer #8
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answered by S K 7
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Ask her Rabbi.
2007-02-03 02:00:02
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answer #9
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answered by ramarro smith shadow 4
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