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2007-02-02 14:47:30 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

13 answers

Under the law of Moses, there was limited slavery allowed. A person who was in debt was permitted to sell themself into slavery for a period of seven years. They received full payment of their debt, plus food, clothing and lodging for those seven years. At the end of that time, they would go free. Or they had the option to remain in slavery permanently. Legally they are not considered to be slaves, but indebtive servants. This was a concept unknown at that time in other cultures. There every human was a slave to the "king" of the country. The actual word used in the original language is not the word "slave", but the word "bondservant". It means one who has to serve until his bond (debt) is paid off.

If the person was a woman, the owner was forbidden to have sex with her unless he married her and she was no longer a slave, but his wife with all the legal rights of a wife.

If the owner were to beat or injure a slave, he had to compensate the slave for the injury. If he struck and killed a slave, he was tried for murder. If the owner was low on food, he had to feed the slave first. If he had only one bed, the slave got it, etc.

In the New Testament, where Israel was no longer under the laws of Moses, but the laws of the Roman Empire, true slavery was common. Roughly 90% of humans at that time were slaves. No one had employees, they had slaves. So the New Testament has rules about how to behave if you are a slave. It says to serve your master well even when he is not watching. To do your serve to them as if it is serve to the Lord.

The New Testament does not sanction a Christian owning slaves. Rather, if you read the little one chapter book of Philemon, it is a letter that Paul wrote to a slave owner who had become a Christian. Paul had meet a slave who had robbed Philemon and then run away. While with Paul, the slave became a Christian. Paul sends the slave back to Philemon to repay him what he had stolen and sent this letter with him. It ask Philemon to receive the slave, not as a run away but as a brother. The letter itself does not tell us how Philemon reacted, but the early church fathers recorded that Philemon not only forgave the slave but set him and his other slaves free.

2007-02-02 14:50:20 · answer #1 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 1 4

Well, Z, in the Old Testament, the Holy Scriptures are against the Jews being enslaved; however, the Jews, themselves, while living in freedom owned slaves. In the New Testament there is mention of slavery (I Corinthians 7:21-24, among others). Rather confusing for those of us who grew up in slave-free countries.
For me there is no consistency as to living in freedom or slavery. In some passages, the Bible seems to approve slavery while in others it seems to condemn it. Contradictory, I'd say! Maybe that's one reason North and South could not agree on the issue themselves.

2007-02-02 23:21:53 · answer #2 · answered by latinoldie 4 · 0 0

Slavery in the bible is not the same as modern slavery..
Biblical "slavery" is when a person wrongs another, and cannot afford to fix the errors. It also says in the bible if you have a "slave", and food for you or the "slave", you must feed the "slave" before you feed yourself... same goes for if you have one bed, or one of anything, the slave gets it before you do....Also it says that every 50th year, all slaves go free, no matter what, besides the 7th year thing mentioned before.. (not after 50 years of "slavery" but every 50th year, a fixed date, so if you acquire a slave in the 49th year of the cycle, you can have a slave for a year). Does this sound like the slavery you know? Didn't think so..

2007-02-02 22:59:27 · answer #3 · answered by XX 6 · 0 1

There are example of slavery in the Old Testament, for example the Israelites were slaves in Egypt and some people own slaves at other times. However in the New Testament it is not encouraged

2007-02-02 23:08:04 · answer #4 · answered by angel 7 · 0 0

Yes but not the kind of slavery that you infer here, Being a slave of God is nothing like the slavery that humans put on their slaves.Being a slave of God is benrficial for the slave, whereas being a slave to man is only beneficial for the slaves master!

2007-02-02 22:57:09 · answer #5 · answered by I speak Truth 6 · 0 0

The Bible doesn't saction anything. I know what you mean. Most Bible loving folks say the whole Bible is the word of God. Does no one see that it a book about Jewish people and their conduct in relationship to their God, and what they thought their God, our God, wanted them to do. It is written as a history (actually a geneology) of the Jewish blood line from Adam to Jesus. Proof: All the name are Jewish names.

Sure the Bible is a history of violence and weird things, but so is my family genealogy. --


(PS: I am a self-read Christian. Meaning I don't fall for those Religious Empires; claiming false things about what Jesus said.)

2007-02-02 23:00:48 · answer #6 · answered by MrsOcultyThomas 6 · 0 0

No more than divorce is. With certain things in life God made provision for them but that does not mean we were meant for them or that he sanctions it.

2007-02-02 23:00:49 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes, in both the Old and New Testaments. By both th Apostle Paul and Jesus hisself

2007-02-02 22:59:26 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Yes. Jesus said, "Slaves be loyal to your masters." This is somewhere in Mark 14.

2007-02-02 23:10:26 · answer #9 · answered by HoBo 4 · 0 0

Yes.

2007-02-02 22:53:19 · answer #10 · answered by Psyleet 3 · 3 1

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