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If an Hebrew name was given, it would seem that changing Messiah's Name to "another name" by subsequent translations would bring into affect the admonitions re Revelations 22:l8 and l9.

2007-02-02 10:41:16 · 5 answers · asked by david t for info 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

5 answers

Apparently translating the scriptures, including the names, is not a sin. Since the Old Testament is in Hebrew, and the New Testament in Greek, every OT person referred to in the New is referred to by the Greek version of his name. But that is not condemned by Revelation (Note there is no "s" on the end of the name of the book).

Plus almost every verse of the Old Testament quoted by Jesus was spoken in Aramaic, not Hebrew, and recorded in Greek. So Jesus had no problem with translating the scriptures.

Also, has the alphabet used for Hebrew is totally different from the one used in Greek or English, and has sounds in it that are difference that either Greek or English, it would be impossible to write or speak the name without translating it.

2007-02-02 10:50:28 · answer #1 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0 0

>>would bring into affect the admonitions re Revelations 22:l8 and l9.<<

Oops, thou hast brought plagues upon thyself by adding an "s" to the name of the last book of the Bible!

2007-02-02 11:22:49 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Do you read the Bible only in the original Greek or Hebrew?

2007-02-02 10:44:57 · answer #3 · answered by rcpeabody1 5 · 1 0

there grew to become into no word for the belief of salvation in the greek language. So the word Jesus is the Anglicized greek transliteration of the Hebrew word for salvation. you will discover that th Greek Iesous is used in the Septuagint for the belief of salvation.

2016-11-24 19:56:59 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

i wonder...

2007-02-02 10:44:17 · answer #5 · answered by Pop♥Princess 2 · 0 0

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