your question is unclear. what are the facts of this supposed school project?
2007-02-02 10:38:29
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answer #1
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answered by Dutchcrunch 2
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Possession of stolen property does not require intent. Simply being in possession of goods that are stolen is sufficient. They cannot charge you with the theft of the goods because that requires more proof. If the person charged with possession knows how the goods were stolen and by who, he should speak to a lawyer and agree to cooperate with the police to try to get a lighter sentence. BTW, I'm an ex police officer.
2007-02-02 10:44:07
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answer #2
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answered by cinsingl83 3
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Well if he was in the house as a guest ; he could say he thought that the property belong to the home owners. He was only a guest so how would he know it did not belong to them.
2007-02-02 10:40:30
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answer #3
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answered by leaving.florida 3
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There isn't anywhere close to enough information for anyone to answer this question. Try again with a few more details,and maybe you can find some help.
2007-02-02 10:42:18
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answer #4
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answered by wildraft1 6
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Just because the stolen goods weren't in his house, does NOT preclude that he didn't hide them elsewhere, or fenced them. Defense for this persons depends on his alibis, if he has any, and if he really did it.
2007-02-02 12:09:45
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answer #5
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answered by WC 7
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They can use the SODDI defense. Some Other Dude Did It.
2007-02-02 10:51:54
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answer #6
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answered by beez 7
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try asking the question again, after you have given detailed information
2007-02-02 13:43:12
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answer #7
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answered by nickle 5
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sounds like "guilt by association" to me. not sure how cops would or wouldnt charge for that.
2007-02-02 15:05:54
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answer #8
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answered by psst.... its me 5
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