In any case, you Christains believe he was one in the same, so essentially Jesus had sex with his own mother, dont you think thats alittle gross
2007-02-02 04:23:16 · 13 answers · asked by Sean 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
You should use your tesosterone for nobler pursuits.
2007-02-02 04:28:45 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Jesus is God's son...God is Jehovah, Jesus' Father.
Jesus was concieved not through sex but by the holy spirit overshadowing Mary...Jesus' spirit life (he was a spirit in heaven) was miraculously transferred to Mary's womb that he may become human.
God cannot become human because his power and magnitude is too much for constricted earth space to contain (1 Kings 8:27).
2007-02-02 18:04:19 · answer #2 · answered by Tomoyo K 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well I am christian & I believe God & Jesus & the holy spirit are 3 seperate beings. Yes some christians believe they are 1 person, but you need to grow up. You obviously have no clue about what you are talking about, nor do you want one, you just want to push buttons...Oh look at me...I am so funny, Grow up.
2007-02-02 12:33:37 · answer #3 · answered by shouldbworkn 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Sex is good no matter who it is with or what. The body of man is a reward for living. What is good for you may not have a reverse. Society makes judgement, not GOD.
The moment of conception has fulfilled the will of God, what comes after is of your will forever more.
2007-02-03 13:34:24 · answer #4 · answered by blueridgemotors 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was not and is not God.
Mary was not a virgin.
The bible was rearranged by the catholics.
We think we know. We dont.
What makes any of us worthy enough to look God in the eye?
And If we are sinners in flesh.
Why would God Take on a flesh body?
When he is without sin.
I have respects for all religions.
I dont belong to any because There is some truth in all.
2007-02-02 12:37:05 · answer #5 · answered by nickname 2 · 0⤊ 4⤋
Jesus was a man and a Prophet, not God. Only Allah is worthy of the praise due to a God. Men should not be revered as Gods. Just as Mohammed (SAW) was only a man and a Prophet and not to be praised as God.
As-Salamu Alaykum - Peace be upon you
2007-02-02 12:27:32 · answer #6 · answered by Maverick 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
This could not be more wrong.. God was not Jesus and Jesus was not God. They are separate entities.
God was Jesus's Father, hence Jesus was God's Son.
Christians must be one messed up bunch of people to believe anything other than this.
2007-02-02 12:28:32 · answer #7 · answered by Aunt Henny Penny 5 · 1⤊ 3⤋
Is Jesus Christ actually God?
John 17:3, RS: “[Jesus prayed to his Father:] This is eternal life, that they know thee the only true God [“who alone art truly God,” NE], and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent.” (Notice that Jesus referred not to himself but to his Father in heaven as “the only true God.”)
John 20:17, RS: “Jesus said to her [Mary Magdalene], ‘Do not hold me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brethren and say to them, I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’” (So to the resurrected Jesus, the Father was God, just as the Father was God to Mary Magdalene. Interestingly, not once in Scripture do we find the Father addressing the Son as “my God.”)
See also pages 411, 416, 417, under the heading “Trinity.”
Does John 1:1 prove that Jesus is God?
John 1:1, RS: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God [also KJ, JB, Dy, Kx, NAB].” NE reads “what God was, the Word was.” Mo says “the Logos was divine.” AT and Sd tell us “the Word was divine.” The interlinear rendering of ED is “a god was the Word.” NW reads “the Word was a god”; NTIV uses the same wording.
What is it that these translators are seeing in the Greek text that moves some of them to refrain from saying “the Word was God”? The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of the·os´ (God) but not before the second. The articular (when the article appears) construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous (without the article) predicate noun before the verb (as the sentence is constructed in Greek) points to a quality about someone. So the text is not saying that the Word (Jesus) was the same as the God with whom he was but, rather, that the Word was godlike, divine, a god. (See 1984 Reference edition of NW, p. 1579.)
What did the apostle John mean when he wrote John 1:1? Did he mean that Jesus is himself God or perhaps that Jesus is one God with the Father? In the same chapter, verse 18, John wrote: “No one [“no man,” KJ, Dy] has ever seen God; the only Son [“the only-begotten god,” NW], who is in the bosom of the Father, he has made him known.” (RS) Had any human seen Jesus Christ, the Son? Of course! So, then, was John saying that Jesus was God? Obviously not. Toward the end of his Gospel, John summarized matters, saying: “These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, [not God, but] the Son of God.”—John 20:31, RS.
2007-02-02 12:28:22 · answer #8 · answered by amorromantico02 5 · 2⤊ 3⤋
You are a Fool!
Why don't you educate yourself and stop being Foolish
Your own words and attitude will be your snare
2007-02-02 12:31:02 · answer #9 · answered by mmmkay_us 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
there is no mother and its not sick cuz youre too small to understand it....so are we all.....ALL PART OF THE SAME TRINITY....HE USED THE HOLY SPIRIT TO IMPREGNATE MARY....ITS WAY ABOVE THE WAY WE DO THINGS...YOU NEED TO LEARN RESPECT..didnt your Mom teach you that??
2007-02-02 12:29:24 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋