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the previous question was about shedding mans blood w/o cause did it mean then that in self defense or harm to family you could then protect yourself

2007-02-01 10:45:02 · 3 answers · asked by loveChrist 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

3 answers

Yes

2007-02-01 10:49:01 · answer #1 · answered by B"Quotes 6 · 1 0

Sorry I missed the previous question. I'll go look.


Edit: Sorry I can't find which question you are talking about.

2007-02-01 18:49:02 · answer #2 · answered by oldguy63 7 · 1 0

Why does it sound like you're premeditating a felony?

2007-02-01 18:49:50 · answer #3 · answered by boatworker 4 · 1 1

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