What is the Biblical basis for the idea that says, the Virgin Mary was sinless and was a perpetual virgin?

Question

Also, is it true that John Paul II declared her a co-redemptress along with Christ. I am a Christian just not a Roman Catholic.

Answer 1

I believe that Mary was kept sinless from the very moment of her conception and here is my reason for this,we know that God detests sin, now if we truly believe that Christ was God and Man then how could He possibly enter and dwell in the womb of a sinner for 9months,it contradicts the very nature of God, and here is the solution I believe,the death and ressurrection of Christ gained abundant merits for the human race and God who is outside of time and space took these and applied them to the person of Mary at the very moment of conception,and this is the meaning of Her Immaculate Conception.
regarding the dogma of Co-Redemptrix there should have been no reason not to proclaim this because all it would have meant is that as Jesus is the new Adam then so Mary is the new Eve and by her `Fiat` or yes to God`s plan of salvation she co-operated fully in the salvific plan by giving birth to the Savior and by Her unwavering love and devotion to Him,it would not have meant that Mary somehow did what only Christ Himself could do,and I believe that the Pope was advised that this could be misconstrued by other denominations as such.
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Answer 2

I think she was righteouss...not sinless. The Bible clearly says that all have sinned (other than Christ) and fallen short of the glory of God. There is no biblical foundation that Mary had any redepmtive qualities. She was favored, honored, and blessed by God because she alone was chosen as the one who would introduce the messiah to the world.

It is also thought by some that she remained a virgin her entire life. Again, scripture would not bear that out. I tend to rely on the word of God rather than the traditions of man.

Answer 3

Jesus had to have organic untouched via a guy. Mary grow to be a virgin and a sturdy believer in God it truly is why she grow to be chosen. purely because we do not realize or refuse to have self assurance would not make it a lie.

Answer 4

In his Apostolic Constitution Ineffabilis Deus (December 8, 1854), which officially defined the Immaculate Conception as dogma for the Catholic Church, Pope Pius IX primarily appealed to the text of Genesis 3:15, where the serpent was told by God, "I will put enmity between you and the woman, between your seed and her seed." According to the Catholic understanding, this was a prophecy that foretold of a "woman" who would always be at enmity with the serpent — that is, a woman who would never be under the power of sin, nor in bondage to the serpent.

Some Catholic theologians have also found Scriptural evidence for the Immaculate Conception in the angel Gabriel's greeting to Mary at the Annunciation, (Luke 1:28). The English translation, "Hail, Full of Grace," or "Hail, Favored One," is based on the Greek of Luke 1:28, "Χαίρε, Κεχαριτωμένη", Chaire kecharitomene, a phrase which can most literally be translated: "Rejoice, you who have been graced". The latter word, kecharitomene, is the Passive voice, Present Perfect participle of the verb "to grace" in the feminine gender, vocative case; therefore the Greek syntax indicates that the action of the verb has been fully completed in the past, with results continuing into the future. Put another way, it means that the subject (Mary) was graced fully and completely at some time in the past, and continued in that fully graced state. The angel's salutation does not refer to the incarnation of Christ in Mary's womb, as he proceeds to say: "thou shalt conceive in thy womb…" (Luke 1:31).

The Church Fathers, almost from the beginning of Church History, found further Scriptural evidence by comparing the figure of Eve to the figure of Mary. St. Justin Martyr said that Mary was a kind of New Eve, "in order that the disobedience which proceeded from the serpent might receive its destruction in the same manner in which it derived its origin." (Dialogue with Trypho, 100) Tertullian argued in the same manner, saying, "As Eve had believed the serpent, so Mary believed the angel. The delinquency which the one occasioned by believing, the other by believing effaced." (On the Flesh of Christ, 17) St. Irenaeus declared that Mary became "the cause of salvation, both to herself and the whole human race," because "what the virgin Eve had bound fast through unbelief, this did the virgin Mary set free through faith." (Against Heresies, Book III, cap. 22, 4) St. Jerome coined the phrase, "Death came through Eve, but life has come through Mary," (Letter XXII, To Eustochium, 21).

The Catholic Encyclopedia, however, states that these scriptures merely serve as corroborative evidence assuming that the dogma is already well established, and that there is insufficient evidence to prove the dogma to someone basing their beliefs solely on biblical interpretation:

No direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture. …The salutation of the angel Gabriel — chaire kecharitomene, Hail, full of grace (Luke 1:28) indicates a unique abundance of grace… but the term kecharitomene (full of grace) serves only as an illustration, not as a proof of the dogma. ― Catholic Encyclopedia — Immaculate Conception:Proof from Scripture

Answer 5

It's not IN the Bible, it's extrapolated, logically, FROM the Bible. You wouldn't want the Son of God to develop in a dirty womb, would you?

And no, JPII did not proclaim that doctrine. According to Newsweek, he was close, but decided against it on advice of counsel. ("Co-redemptrix" is such a funny word.)

Answer 6

Is it hard to believe that God would not want the Mother of God, Jesus mother, to be sinless?

Answer 7

1. She was not sinless

2. She is not a co-redeemer.

She just had faith and believed God.

Answer 8

They don't sell regular Bibles in your hometown?

Answer 9

it's a Catholic belief, you won't find it in the Bible unless they've added it to theirs.

Answer 10

There is none.