Where in the bible does it reference the apacrapha?

Question

Does the bible reference the apacrapha? I heard it did and I thought it was in the book of Ester. Please give book/chapter/verse of the bible that references the apacrapha if you know of any..

Answer 1

The bible does not refer to the Apocrypha. We do.
Catholic Bibles which follow the bible of the Greek speaking Jews of the common era(Septuagint) have seven more book in the section called the Hebrew Bible(Old Testament). Protestants refer to these extra books are Apocrypha or Pseudigrapha.
Protestants follow the bible of the non_Greek speakers among the ancient Jews. The believe these extra seven books may be inspiring reading but should not be used for determining teaching.
Jesus read from the text of the Greek speaking Jews when he appeared in the synagogue at Nazareth described in chapter 4 of Luke's Gospel. In the section of the Christian Scriptures(New Testament) both Catholic and Protestant editions are the same.

Answer 2

Nowhere. It's sort of hard for a book that is a collection of different works to self-reference its own composition. The "apocrypha" came into existence in the Fifth Century CE, when Jerome began to translate the Septuagint and the Greek New Testament into Latin. At one point he realized that the Septuagint was a translation and that he should seek out the original Hebrew Bible. He then discovered that some of the books and portions in the Septuagint did not appear in the Jewish Hebrew Bible. There was no surviving Hebrew version to translate from.

He had to make a decision. To keep from losing the Greek books, but to indicate that they didn't have Hebrew backing, he separated them into their own section, calling it "apocrypha" ("hidden") and let people decide about their future later.

The people who wrote the various books of the Bible were trying to deliver a message, not pass judgment on which other books were "worthy" of inclusion in a collection. The "Bible" couldn't very well exist at the time they were writing it, could it? The official contents of the Bible were determined long after the books were written, long after the writers had died, so they could not know which books were "canon", which were "apocrypha" and which would not be included at all (pseudepigrapha).

Answer 3

Protestants respond by pointing out that even though some of the Apocryphal books may have been alluded to in the New Testament, no New Testament writer EVER quoted from ANY of these books as holy Scripture or gave them the slightest authority as inspired books. Jesus and the disciples virtually ignored these books, something that wouldn't have been the case if they had considered them to be inspired.
Moreover, even though certain church fathers spoke approvingly of the Apocrypha, there were other early church fathers - notable Origin and Jerome - who denied their inspiration. Further, even though the early Augustine acknowledged the Apocrypha, in his later years he rejected these books as being outside the canon and considered them inferior to the Hebrew Scriptures.
The Jewish Council of Jamie, which met in A.D. 90, rejected the Apocrypha as Scripture. Combine all this with the fact that there are clear historical errors in the Apocrypha (especially those relating to Obit) and the fact that it contains unbiblical doctrines (like praying for the dead), and it is clear that these books do not belong in the Bible. In addition, unlike many of the biblical books, THERE IS NO CLAIM IN ANY APOCRYPHAL BOOK IN REGARD TO DIVINE INSPIRATION.

Answer 4

The apocrypha is not mentioned in the Bible. It is included in the Roman Catholic and Orthodox Bibles, but are not considered "canononical" scripture. See the quoted below:

"What is the Apocrypha?
The term "apocrypha" was coined by the fifth-century biblical scholar St. Jerome and refers to the biblical books included as part of the Septuagint (the Greek version of the Old Testament), but not included in the Hebrew Bible.

Several works ranging from the fourth century B.C.E. to New Testament times are considered apocryphal--including Judith, the Wisdom of Solomon, Tobit, Sirach (or Ecclesiasticus), Baruch, First and Second Maccabees, the two Books of Esdras, various additions to the Book of Esther (10:4-10), the Book of Daniel (3:24-90;13;14), and the Prayer of Manasseh.

The apocrypha have been variously included and omitted from bibles over the course of the centuries. Protestant churches generally exclude the apocrypha (though the King James version of 1611 included them). The Roman Catholic and Orthodox churches include all of the apocrypha (except for the books of Esdras and the Prayer of Manasseh), but refer to them as "deuterocanonical" books. In this context, the term "apocrypha" generally refers to writings entirely outside of the biblical canon and not considered inspired (such as the Gospel of Thomas). These same books are referred to by Protestants as the "pseudoepigrapha." "

Answer 5

The Apocrypha is not mentioned in any book, it is the difference between a Catholic/Orthodox Bible and the Protestant and Jewish Old Testament. This is a name given to the extra books found in the Bible of those who used the Greek Translation as their foundation to later be translated to Latin which then got translated to other languages.
The Jewish and Protestant Bibles are missing these writings because their Bibles are based on the Hebrew version.
God bless you and your search for truth.

Answer 6

There are no Bible references of the Apocrypha.

Answer 7

do you mean the apocrypha? By definition the apocrypha are not part of either the OT or the NT. Its the stuff that was excluded. the Gospel of Thomas, other Apocalypses, etc.

Answer 8

Jude refers to some of the apocryphal writings.

Answer 9

Prov. 30:5,6
Every word of God is pure;
He is a shield to those who put their trust in Him.
Do not add to His words,
Lest He rebuke you,
and you be found a liar.