We tell individuals that they would serve 80% of the maximum for strike one, double the max for strike two and 25 to life for three. Is this accurate?
2007-02-01 07:24:49 · 5 answers · asked by John W 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law Enforcement & Police
Not quite. The fact that a conviction would in the future count as a "strike" has no effect upon sentencing on the FIRST strike. On a second strike the D would have to serve 80%, and the sentence is double the term which would otherwise be imposed (which usually is NOT the maximum sentence). The third strike is 25 to life.
2007-02-02 06:27:32 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Usually for the three strikes law, the first to strikes are regular sentencing, its when you get the third strike that they give you a maximum sentencing.
2007-02-01 07:47:30 · answer #2 · answered by sweetcatastrophe84 2 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Fairly accurate. Here is a link that not only gives information on the law, but you can actually read the law itself.
http://www.threestrikes.org
2007-02-01 10:47:00 · answer #3 · answered by gunsandammoatwork 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Personally, they should be out with the first strike, did any of these dirtbags, give their victims, "at least one chance, much less three"???????
2007-02-01 07:30:10 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Well do it once, and you get a light sentence
do it twice and you get more time,
do it thrice and man you are gone
for a very long time, it is a neat way
of dealing with repeat offenders and
they need to do this everywhere..................
2007-02-02 01:34:09 · answer #5 · answered by gorglin 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋