that he only became perfect after he learned obedience from his suffering on the cross?
Heb 5:8 Son though he was, he learned obedience from what he suffered;
Heb 5:9 and when he was made perfect, he became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey him,
2007-02-01
07:21:49
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27 answers
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asked by
Kimo
4
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
http://www.vatican.va/archive/ENG0839/__P11K.HTM
2007-02-01
07:22:17 ·
update #1
He became perfect means he was imperfect.
2007-02-01
07:31:05 ·
update #2
Paul also claims that he learned obedience from what he suffered, which mean he was disobedient before it.
2007-02-01
07:37:25 ·
update #3
It doesn't say "learned the cost of obedience" but "learned obedience" there is a big difference.
2007-02-01
07:58:55 ·
update #4
Sternchen
You answer didn't add anything... he actually became perfect before his death according to Paul (he was still a man) so you interpretation doesn't work.
2007-02-01
11:00:08 ·
update #5
Good question. Actually the very next line says: "And having been made perfect, He became to all those who obey Him the source of eternal life." (Hebrews 5:9)
The Bible sets forth Jesus Christ as the perfect man. However men are by their nature, a work in progress. If you see a blossom on an apple tree in spring, you might say that tree is perfect, but only according to its present stage of development. If all that tree has at the time of harvest is blossoms, it is a very imperfect tree indeed.
What the verse means then, is that Jesus learned the cost of obedience, what it meant to obey God, from experience. He obeyed God, and therefore became perfect. For further consideration, see Luke 2:52.
2007-02-01 07:32:38
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answer #1
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answered by wefmeister 7
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Again this is an example of failure to do your research.
When Christians say Jesus is perfect we mean that He is morally sinless in every way, there is no falsehood in Him.
And in Hebrews, the word "perfect" is not the opposite of flaws or imperfection. The idea is one of being "complete" or "qualified", it was only through the suffering that He was "perfected", completing His earthly purpose and thus qualified to being the author of salvation. It's the same way when we exclaim that something is "perfect" when it has done all that we wanted it to do. The NLT says it this way:
"Even though Jesus was God's Son, he learned obedience from the things he suffered. In this way, God QUALIFIED him as a perfect High Priest, and he became the source of eternal salvation for all those who obey him."
2007-02-01 13:50:03
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answer #2
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answered by Seraph 4
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Learn the English language!!! 8 Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered;
9 And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;
8 Christ was tempted and overcame sin learning obedience as a man. In no way does this say he was ever not obedient.
9 You simply misquoted it does not say when he was made perfect so you are either a liar trying to mislead people or you need to get a different translation...verse 9 speaks for itself it says he was made perfect, he became a source of eternal salvation for us all.
the scriptures yu refer to show the opposite of what you are trying to say in that they say he was made peerfect or born perfect.
2007-02-02 08:19:14
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answer #3
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answered by djmantx 7
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Is it not possible that the aforementioned, mental disorders, autism, retardation, paraplegia etc. have nothing at all to do with the Original Sin? Is it not possible that the punishments given were the ones listed, and the rest were not God's doing? Why does everything have to be God's conscious and willful doing. And who are you to judge that autistic men and women were not made exactly as God designed? So they do not fit as normal in this society. That much is true. But they are often much happier than your average human, are they not? Happy, honest, sweet people. As far as mental retardation goes, have you read Flowers for Algernon? Good book if not, teaches a very good lesson. I may not be a Christian but I fail to comprehend why you have decided that all bad things fall blame to God. Why they are a form of uneven punishment. Who has told you that God did not create the natural world with the knowledge it would develop and change itself? Sometimes, the changes are bad. Is that impossible to you? Sorry, I can't quote the bible because I don't find what you're saying plausible. Hope you find the answer you're looking for.
2016-05-24 02:41:21
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Catechism is not a Bible. If you are a Catholic, you need to follow the Bible and not Catholic doctrine from the Catechism.
Catechism, "if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them." Is 8:20
The blasphemous dogmas of this catechism is not of God's work because "All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness", 2 Timothy 3:16
Catechism cannot be done by faith. 2 Cor. 5:7; Rom. 10:17
Catechism is going beyond what's written. 1 Cor. 4:6
Catechism is not according to the pattern. Heb. 8:5
Catechism is adding to the Word of God. Rev. 22:18; Deut. 4:2
100% Pope is wrong, then Billions are in for a big disappointment.
Jesus expected the people of His day to privately interpret the Scriptures.
He used such terms as "search the Scriptures" John 5:39, "have you not read?" Matt. 12:3; 12:5; 19:4; 21:16,42; 22:31, "is it not written in your law?" John 10:34; Luke 10:26 which show that the people were obligated to read and interpret the Scriptures.
JESUS quoted the Scriptures as the final source of authority. Matt. 22:29-32; Mark 7:9-13
JESUS said, "I have given them thy word...Sanctify them in the truth. Thy word is truth." John 17:14,17
What do I do if we can't trust Catholicism to tell me what to believe? I ought to go to the scriptures.
2007-02-01 07:32:32
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answer #5
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answered by House Speaker 3
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I can only see your lack of Bible knowledge and understanding of the Nature of Jesus
As a man and as a Jew, Jesus was in a humbled state, under the Law, and lower than the angels. As a result of these conditions, Jesus had to operate in agreement with His humbled condition; that is, He had to act as a man, completely as a man who was under the Law of God.
Incarnation of Jesus means that the Word became flesh, became a man John 1:1,14,
Jesus emptied Himself
Phil. 2:5-8
As a man, Jesus is under the Law
Gal. 4:4,
As a man, Jesus was made for a while lower than the angels
Heb. 2:9,
As a man, Jesus was perfected though suffering. As a man, he was made perfect; that is, He was as a completed sacrifice by the finished work of propitiation. Heb. 10:14 says, "For by one offering He has perfected for all time those who are sanctified."
Hebrews 2:17, "Therefore, He had to be made like His brethren in all things, that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people."
This is necessary because Jesus is both human and divine.
2007-02-01 08:43:17
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answer #6
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answered by Sternchen 5
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The word perfect doesnt mean back then what it means now. We view a perfect human as one who never made a mistake nor could make a mistake. If you literally believe that, then Jesus said you could be perfect by selling all your possesions. Does that mean you become some kind of supreme being upon doing so?
No, Paul or whoever the author was here was communicating the idea that Jesus' mission wasnt complete until after he was resurrected. So this "imperfection" was more like incompleteness. It also says that he was glorified after his death, does that mean he wasnt glorious before his death? Of coarse not.
2007-02-01 07:43:23
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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This question perfectly illustrates the fact that you have not taken into account the fact that He was fully man and fully God. As a man He learned obedience by the things which He suffered. Every christian cult has this in common, because someone was unable to understand the mysteries of the Godhead or who Jesus is, they went off into aberrant theology of their own making. Are there things in the bible that are hard to understand, of course. Does this mean that we should create our own theology, reshape God in our image?, absolutely not.
2007-02-01 07:33:02
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answer #8
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answered by james p 3
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Your problem is simple: you are translating an Old English word with a modern English definition. Perfect means "to complete, or finish, or to be made whole" in Old English, the language of the King James version you are quoting from.
When people today say he was perfect, they usually mean he was without sin. Hebrews 5:9 is referring to his completion of the sacrifice for mankind (when he said "it is finished"). I hope that helps to give you some clarity.
2007-02-06 08:58:28
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answer #9
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answered by Luvly 3
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Nobody is perfect, not jesus or paul (saul). Paul killed christians before his near death experience and jesus was a rebel who did not follow the laws of the land even though he says that we should follow the laws and give to ceasar what is ceasar's.
2007-02-08 18:50:11
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answer #10
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answered by Woody 2
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