2007-02-01 07:00:07 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I'm sorry? when did Paul meet Jesus? on the road to Damascus when he fell of his horse? Sounds more like an epileptic fit to me.
2007-02-01 07:10:40 · update #1
Hand of JC - Thomas Aquinas and St-Augustine were part of the Enlightenment? So they would have met David Hume, John Stuart Mill, and those guys? Your knowledge of history is appaling.
2007-02-01 07:12:39 · update #2
Because Paul brought someone back from the dead, and worked other miracles. Augustine & Thomas Aquinas did not. Moses said that a true prophet had to do three things to prove that he was a prophet: (a) work miracles to prove that God was with him; (b) foretell the future; and, (c) not contradict another true prophet, since God does not contradict himself.
Note that Paul said something similar about the sign of a "true apostle".
Neither Augustine of Hippo, nor Thomas Aquinas, ever claim to have performed miracles, nor to be seeing visions of the future, as far as I know. And neither one claimed to be a prophet or an apostle as far as I know. Their work was considered to be divine by other people who didn't know them.
Besides, Paul was part of the original church, and his writings, teachings and beliefs were scrutinized by the original apostles who had been taught by Jesus himself. None other than Peter himself expressly refer to the writings of Paul as "scripture", and the "words of God". Augustine & Thomas Aquinas cannot claim to have had their writings so scrutinized, nor were their writings so endorsed by the original apostles.
The Protestant doctrine of sola scriptura seems rather straight forward and common sense to me.
2007-02-01 07:14:59 · answer #1 · answered by Randy G 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Paul actually met the Resserected Jesus. His diatribes and other writings were much more circulated earlier on then Aquians and Augustine. Plus Paul wrote earlier then they did. Paul was also responsible for many of the first Christian churches!
2007-02-01 07:05:21 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Well you'd have to ask the men from the Nicene Council since they approved the first editions of the Bible or you could ask how a homosexual king like James the first could commission a questionable knock off of the same book? Outside of that, I don't have a clue.
2007-02-01 07:04:24 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
For something to be canonzied into Scripture it had to have had apostallic support. Since those books were written around the enlightenment, they could not have possibly been read by the apostles.
2007-02-01 07:10:10 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
It's got to be pick and choose or there will be even more contradictions in the bible.
2007-02-01 07:04:12 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋