"The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him" (King James).
If Jesus was God, why did it say it was a revelation given to him by God?
2007-02-01 02:57:12 · 4 answers · asked by OatesATM 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
James ---
Then why did it need to be added, would not Jesus have known and just given over from there? And your question to me makes no sense --- If Jesus wasn't God why did God refer to him as God --- did you actually listen to what you said, did Jesus refer to himself?
Lenz --- It is true the revelation was given to John, but fist it came from God, through Jesus, but even Jesus didn't deliver it, verse 1 continues to say that one of his angels gave it to John.
2007-02-01 03:23:00 · update #1
Trinitarians will say that God gave it to himself. This goes along with their reasoning that Jesus resurrected himself from the grave, prayed to himself, worshipped himself and sat at his own right hand.
This was a revelation given to Jesus by God. We know this because the latter part of Rev 1:1 says--"to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John"
2 Timothy 4:3-4--"For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine, but according to their own desires, because they have itching ears, they will heap up for themselves teachers; and they will turn their ears away from the truth, and be turned aside to fables.
2007-02-01 03:16:06 · answer #1 · answered by Micah 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The simple truth is that Jesus is not God. He is the Son of God. (John 10:36) If he were God, why would he give something to himself that he already had?
Does God have a God and Father? Obviously not! But does Jesus have a God and Father? Yes. At Rev. 1:6, it says that Jesus "made us to be a kingdom, priests to his God and Father--yes, to him be the glory and the might forever. Amen."
The bottom line is: Jesus is not God; he is God's Son.
2007-02-01 04:39:51 · answer #2 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
If Jesus wasn't God why did God refer to Him as God in places like Zech. 2:11 and the O.T. in Hebrews 1:8 among others... by the way if the Son is God and the Father is God, it would be quite correct for the Son to say that God gave it to Him if it indeed came from the Father. Sorry Oates, but your reasoning is that no matter what the word says, if you cant make sense of it, then it must mean something else. The bible says a great many things I have little understanding of, but that does not negate what has been said. The doctrine of the Godhead is clearly laid out in scripture, I have precious little understanding of it, but it is still there, I cant deny that. When I look at the ultra deep field photos from NASA, I see hundreds and thousands of galaxies, all filled with billions of starts. I cannot in any way really grasp the enormity of it all, but I cant deny it because of that fact. people who profess to be Christians but deny the triune nature of God do so simply because they do not understand it, not because it isn't clearly spelled out in scripture. READ Zch 2:10-11...what do you think this means..."Sing and rejoice, O daughter of Zion! For behold, I am coming and I will dwell in your midst," says the Lord."Many nations shall be joined to the Lord in that day, and they shall become my people. And I will dwell in your midst. Then you will know that the Lord of Hosts has sent me to you." Just why is the Lord telling us that the Lord has sent Him to us?
2007-02-01 03:08:15 · answer #3 · answered by james p 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋
The revelation was given to the Apostle John, not Jesus.
2007-02-01 03:08:34 · answer #4 · answered by LENZ 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋