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Can you show me in scripture please?

My Bible says that it is Scripture that is to be used as measuring stick to determine truth from error.

Scripture states that God has provided for His church through "infallible Scripture" Acts 20:32; 2 Timothy 3:15-17;
Matthew 5:18; John 10:35; Acts 17:10-12; Isaiah 8:20; 40:8; etc.

2007-01-31 08:39:53 · 15 answers · asked by House Speaker 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

1 Timothy 3:15 when Paul speaks of the church as the pillar and foundation of the truth.

Timothy does not mean the church is the source from which truth will come. Pillars and foundations are not sources.

2007-01-31 09:04:46 · update #1

Here is says,

Jesus has all authority both in heaven and on earth. (Matt. 28:18)

Jesus is head over all things to the church. (Eph. 1:22-23)

Pope, Bishop and Priest? Jesus did not appoint any man or group of men to preside over His church.

Jesus 's church has no earthly president or headquarters because He Himself is its only head.

Pope as "Vicar of Christ"?

IT IS WRITTEN AS JESUS SAID, "I AM WITH YOU ALWAYS EVEN UNTO
THE END OF THE WORLD AMEN." MATTHEW 28:20

2007-01-31 09:06:35 · update #2

ED, All Scripture is "God-breathed" and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, 2 Timothy 3:16

There are none that mention an infallible interpreter and none that hint or remotely imply that Christ wanted one.

2007-01-31 09:16:12 · update #3

Jim, are you from Honduras? ;)

2007-01-31 09:18:40 · update #4

15 answers

You hit on the major difference between catholicism and Christianity. They claim that church tradition is more important than scripture and they have extensively added and removed things from scripture.

2007-01-31 08:44:36 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3 3

Is the Bible the "pillar of truth" in the Christian religion? No. According to the Bible Itself, the Church is the "pillar of truth" (1 Timothy 3:15), not the Bible. Some "Bible" Christians insist that a "pillar" (the Church) was created to "hold up" another structure (the Bible). They claim the Bible is the structure being held up according to this passage. Well, if that is the case, how did the early Church "hold up" the Bible for the first three to four hundred years when the Bible Itself didn't even exist? Also, even if the Church is only a "pillar" holding up the Bible, doesn't that mean that the Church is the interpreter of Scripture rather than the individual?
>>>>>>Did the early Christians have the Bible as we know it? No. The Bible as a whole was not compiled until the late 4th century and then it was compiled by a Catholic saint (St. Jerome) at the request of a Catholic pope (St. Damasus I). So how were the early Christians saved if they did not possess the entire written "Word of God" to follow His teachings? Well, naturally, they were the Body of Christ and were taught through "oral" teachings by the Church, not by writings.

2007-01-31 08:49:44 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

The Catechism is not a "source" of teaching. It is a compilation of teaching. The teaching of Christ's Church was originally received from the lips of Jesus Christ Himself, the founder of the Christian (Catholic) Church. That teaching was later preached by the Apostles to much of the known world. Still later parts of that teaching was mentioned by the Apostles in some of their correspondence and other writings. Everything they wrote was fully in conformity with the teaching of the Church, since that's where they got what they wrote. 300 years after that the bishops of the Catholic Church bound some of those writings into a book for the first time. Everything in that book was in full agreement with the teaching of the Church. Any writing that deviated from the teaching of Christ's Church was not included in the book. In modern times that same teaching has been compiled into a Catechism for quick and easy systematic reference. However, the Catechism is the end point of doctrinal truth, not the starting point. The truth of the Church's teaching has been passed from Christ to the apostles, to their writings, to the Bible, and finally to the Catechism. There is no conflict among any of these, for they are all the exact same teaching. If you pick up a copy of the Catechism, the first thing you will notice is all the footnotes referring you to the scriptures where the various teachings can be found.

By the way, where in scripture can I find the idea that everything must be checked against scripture, or that scripture is supposed to be the sole source of Christian truth?? That sounds to me very much like a modern tradition of men.
.

2007-01-31 08:51:26 · answer #3 · answered by PaulCyp 7 · 1 2

Catechisms are simply an interpretation of scripture, using scripture, through a consensus of scholars. If all people could interpret the Bible the same way, we would not need catechisms. If I tell you that we are commanded to play tennis because Joseph served in Pharoah's court, I don't have any backing whatsoever for my claim, even though I can find my "proof text" easily enough. I would need to be whacked over the head with my own measuring stick.

2007-01-31 08:58:16 · answer #4 · answered by ccrider 7 · 1 1

If you knew what a catechism was, you wouldn't ask the question. The catechism is a set of rules and doctrinal principles--drawn directly from the Bible. Many (e.g., You shall not steal" are direct quotes (or equivalents, depending on the version of the Bible you're using. Others, like "God is the supreme Being" are summations of Biblical truths.

In other words, catechism is a sort of condensation--but every part has Biblical authority behind it. It's a useful tool for teaching--and, sometimes, quick reference to find out what Scripture says.

Catholics tend to teach that the rules of the catechism are binding--because they ARE from scripture, not a substitute for scripture.

2007-01-31 08:50:26 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

Actually, the word Catechism does not appear in the the bible. Not even the Dewy-Rhymes Catholic version so I am not sure why you say the Bible teaches this.

The Roman Catholic church catechism defines sin as "any Damage done to the glory of God". But this is a theistic definition not biblical reference.

What bible are you referring to? The bible I read says that it is the light of Christ, which is given to all men, which when relied upon enables us to discern good from evil. It says nothing about the Roman Catholic catechism.

Sorry.

2007-01-31 08:56:25 · answer #6 · answered by MtnManInMT 4 · 1 1

Jesus commanded his apostles to go out, to teach, and to baptize.

He never specified the use of scripture, and since the new testament didn't even exist at the time, that was a very good thing.

The Catholic Church was authorized and empowered by Christ to bind and loose, to teach, and to govern, as the bishops and the pope of the church saw fit to do.

Where do you get the authority to back up your opinions?

2007-01-31 12:42:35 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

You have to remember that oral tradition came before the Gospels and this sacred tradition is still an important part of the church,you cannot seperate one from the other or you do a grave injustice,these two things,Apostolic tradition and the written Gospels added to church teaching make up what is infallible in dogma,and the catechism is a vital component.

2007-01-31 08:50:22 · answer #8 · answered by Sentinel 7 · 2 1

God works in mysterious ways so I can surely say that God can work in all religions, yet the Catholic church is the only church founded by Jesus Christ, through Peter. Unless the church die when Peter die. If anybody disagree with this then he/she is saying that Jesus lie to Peter when He told him:

"Blessed are you, Simon son of Jonah, for this was not revealed to you by man, but by my Father in heaven. And I tell you that you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, ""and the gates of Hades will not overcome it."" I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven; whatever you bind on earth will be[e] bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven." (Mathew 16: 17-19) There has always been a Pope, as a a sign that is God and His Spirit working through man and not a man following another man. We Catholics are call to be Christians, not as a name "christian" but as Jesus has commanded us through His scripture and through the apostles. As the Father has sent me, I am sending you." And with that he breathed on them and said, "Receive the Holy Spirit. If you forgive anyone his sins, they are forgiven; if you do not forgive them, they are not forgiven." (JOHN 20: 21-22) That means they are following God’s direct teaching not man’s teaching.
I am following the true by following the Church that Jesus founded, until He comes back in His Glory.

A Christian is an image of Christ as the gospel of Mathew 5 describes it. I am call to be a Christian but only through His grace can I be a real Christian, which means that is a constant combat.

2007-01-31 09:32:36 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

“yet regardless of if we, or an angel from heaven, might desire to hold forth to you a gospel opposite to that which we preached to you, enable him be accursed. As we've pronounced earlier, so now I say lower back, If anybody is preaching to you a gospel opposite to that which you gained, enable him be accursed.” It doesn’t say jack approximately Scripture. whilst Scripture is noted, the word “this is written” is used. on the time Paul wrote this, there replaced into no NT. The gospel replaced into oral custom.

2016-12-16 17:54:29 · answer #10 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

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