"My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" (Matthew 27:46)
2007-01-31 03:20:23 · 18 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Jesus IS God according to Christians.
2007-01-31 03:25:48 · update #1
I guess it was kind of like when people say "feet don't fail me now!"
I'm just guessing.
2007-01-31 03:23:06 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 6⤊ 0⤋
Biblical scholars theorize that the Gospel of Matthew reflects the beliefs of a particular Christian sect that held that Jesus was born a man not divine, and that he became the son of God at the time of his baptism by John. This sect also believed that the divine part of Jesus exited his body just before death. Hence, Jesus cried out "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" Christians tend to think that there existed one set of ideas that were firmly believed by all of his followers after his death. But things were quite the contrary. For three hundred years, a battle raged concerning his divinity, his purpose, and his life. All of the various sects produced literature that reflected their particular beliefs. The literature of the sect that won the battle had the distinction of being labeled the New Testament. The remainder of the literature from other sects was labeled heretical. While much of this literature was burned, some survived. And some was unearthed during the 20th century on archaeological expeditions. Hence, we now have the Gospel of Judas, considered to belong to the Gnostic sect.
2007-01-31 04:15:49 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because Jesus was the Son of God, and He was speaking to His Father.
Although we say the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are one God, they are different entities.
Then why do we say they are one?
Good question, it is because Jesus said that He could do only what the Father showed Him to do, and He only knew what the Father had revealed to Him.
Also the Holy Spirit says these words are not mine, but are given to me to give to you.
So, even though the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are different entities, with different responsibilities, the Son and Holy Spirit work in concert with the Father and are considered to be God.
As they do not operate separate from the Father.
The general explanation for that cry to the Father, other than the fact that it was prophesied, is the Bible says that God cannot look upon sin, and Jesus had just taken on the sins of mankind, thus causing the Father to look away.
grace2u
2007-01-31 03:34:13 · answer #3 · answered by Theophilus 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus is God in the flesh. Remember, God is spirit and God's spirit can be in America and India and China all at the same time. It is not bounded by time nor space.
When Jesus said that, He was found in the flesh and undertaking the task of shouldering the sins of mankind. Sin separates man from God (which is why Jesus was sent to bridge the great divide caused by sin). When Jesus took the sins, He was separated from God too, and that is tormentous to Jesus.
There is absolutely nothing wrong with that statement. In fact, it should make us realise the importance of keeping sins out of our lives.
2007-01-31 03:25:15 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus had to be cut off from God the Father in order to truly suffer. He had to deny His deity-self in order to take on the evil and sin that man had accumulated...and would accumulate. He needed to go to Hell with these sins.
Thus, He had to be cut off from God (sounds strange, but so is the dual nature of the God-Man).
He was alone, and foresaken...by design.
Plus, it was a quote from the old testament. It was to bring the prophesy to fulfillment.
2007-01-31 03:24:24 · answer #5 · answered by Jay 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
While hanging on that cross,, Jesus was quoting Psalms that was written by David;...Prophesy concerning His death on that cross that was written 1000 years before the fact. God never forsakes His own. Jesus, while hanging on that cross was teaching. Jesus also forgave the one that hung beside Him while on that cross.
2007-01-31 03:34:07 · answer #6 · answered by rhanjo 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I understand that Jesus asked this in His humanity and in this we should understand that as He took on Himself the sins of the world, so too He experienced the abandonment that all sinners would have themselves experienced at their death, had Jesus not made this ultimate sacrifice.
2007-01-31 03:25:25 · answer #7 · answered by Sentinel 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because he was in human form at that time of suffering. Therefore he was a son calling out to his father.
2007-01-31 05:26:48 · answer #8 · answered by jasmin2236 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He is quoting the title of a Messianic Psalm.
2007-01-31 03:24:34 · answer #9 · answered by NONAME 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Christ was in agony..he is asking his Father (God) the question. God is not asking Himself.
2007-01-31 03:23:20 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yeah, I wondered that myself. If Jesus = God and God = Jesus then how come he can forsake himself. Split personality anyone?
I just couldn't be arsed to look up the verse, so thanks for asking ;)
2007-01-31 03:23:30 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋