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Why don't people who are "speaking in tongues" ever speak in sign language?

2007-01-31 02:20:27 · 20 answers · asked by Prophet ENSLAVEMENTALITY (pbuh) 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

20 answers

I think some do.

To explain this opinion, I need to point out that I think speaking in tongues is the ability to speak (or sign) another language for the purpose of sharing the gospel (meaning there's somebody who speaks it that you would use it to communicate with).

Often, I think this gift comes quieter through someone who is able to learn a language at a miraculously quick rate, and then share their beliefs with someone because they've learned how to talk or sign to them.

Thanks

2007-01-31 02:29:00 · answer #1 · answered by daisyk 6 · 1 1

In the first century, the miraculous gifts of the spirit, including the ability to "speak in tongues", verified that God's favor had shifted from the Jewish system of worship to the newly established Christian congregation. (Heb. 2:2-4) The ability to "speak in tongues" gave impetus to the international work of witnessing that Jesus had commissioned his followers to do. (Acts 1:8, 2:1-11; Matt. 28:19)

In the first century, when Christians "spoke in tongues", what they said had meaning to people who knew those languages.
(Acts 2: 4, 8) Today, it's usually involves an ecstatic outburst of unintelligible sounds.

In the first century, the Bible shows, congregations were to limit the "speaking in tongues" to two or three persons who might do that at any given meeting; they were to do it "each in turn" and if there was no interpreter present they were to keep silent. (1 Cor. 14: 27, 28)

Is the "speaking in tongues" today from God? 1 Cor. 13: 1, 8 says "If I speak in the tongues of men and of angels but do not have love, I have become a sounding piece of brass or a clashing cymbal. Love never fails. But whether there are gifts of prophesying, they will be done away with; whether there are tongues, they will cease."

2007-01-31 11:03:51 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

People speaking in tongues are doing it for their own benefit and not that of others. If there is no one to translate it and it doesn't uplift the congregation then it is only for the edification of the individual who is (supposedly) speaking in tongues.The whole purpose of speaking in tongues in the Bible was so that people of all the nations might be able to hear and understand the wonderful things of God which the apostles and first Christians were speaking to the nations.

Acts 2:1- 12 "Now while the day of the [festival of] Pentecost was in progress they were all together at the same place, 2 and suddenly there occurred from heaven a noise just like that of a rushing stiff breeze, and it filled the whole house in which they were sitting. 3 And tongues as if of fire became visible to them and were distributed about, and one sat upon each one of them, 4 and they all became filled with holy spirit and started to speak with different tongues, just as the spirit was granting them to make utterance.

5 As it was, there were dwelling in Jerusalem Jews, reverent men, from every nation of those under heaven. 6 So, when this sound occurred, the multitude came together and were bewildered, because each one heard them speaking in his own language. 7 Indeed, they were astonished and began to wonder and say: “See here, all these who are speaking are Gal·i·le′ans, are they not? 8 And yet how is it we are hearing, each one of us, his own language in which we were born? 9 Par′thi·ans and Medes and E′lam·ites, and the inhabitants of Mes·o·po·ta′mi·a, and Ju·de′a and Cap·pa·do′ci·a, Pon′tus and the [district of] Asia, 10 and Phryg′i·a and Pam·phyl′i·a, Egypt and the parts of Lib′y·a, which is toward Cy·re′ne, and sojourners from Rome, both Jews and proselytes, 11 Cre′tans and Arabians, we hear them speaking in our tongues about the magnificent things of God.” 12 Yes, they were all astonished and were in perplexity, saying one to another: “What does this thing purport to be?”

2007-01-31 10:32:42 · answer #3 · answered by wannaknow 5 · 1 1

The speaking in tongues is a gift of speaking the language of the biblical "ancients". Sign is actually an invention of modern man not of the ancients, though I am sure many muted ancients had a "sign" type of means of communicating..

2007-01-31 10:32:05 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

*He that speaks in an unknown tongue edefies himself; but he that prophecises edifies the church 1 Corinthians 14:4

Except ye utter by the tongue words easy to be understood, how shall it be knoown what is spoken? For ye are speaking in the air. 1 Corinthians 14: 9*

2007-01-31 10:34:36 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

how do we know that the deaf do not "speak in tongues" just because they cannot speak it does not mean they cannot have a special language to praise God with, etc. I have known a few deaf Christians in my life, and they can have the most incredible personal relationship with Jesus.

2007-01-31 10:49:55 · answer #6 · answered by AdoreHim 7 · 0 1

They did originally. When people started speaking in tongues in Topeka, Kansas, 1901, they even 'wrote' in tongues. When they found out that they were writing in gibberish, they stopped, and just focused on 'speaking' in tongues. When their missionaries found out that they were speaking gibberish, they claimed to be speaking in a 'prayer language.'

2007-01-31 10:25:14 · answer #7 · answered by NONAME 7 · 1 1

Because its speaking in TONGUES.

Can it be more clear?

2007-01-31 10:26:05 · answer #8 · answered by Soon2BMommy 3 · 1 1

could there be anything more repulsive and lame then someone pretending to speak in tongues? I think not.

2007-01-31 10:26:31 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

Sign language is understandable, and wouldnt draw enough attention to themselves.

2007-01-31 10:26:38 · answer #10 · answered by TULSA 4 · 2 0

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