Mark A says >>>Because Satan has corrupted the bible. The King James Version is recognised as the official word of God translated from the ancient texts. All after that version have been corrupted. <<<
Uhmm, sorry to break it to you, but the Gutenburg Bible was written in 1455, in German, so I suppose all versions after that must be corrupt. It was also recognised as the official word of God. . . until the next official version came along.
The real difference between Bibles is what books are included/excluded for the text. Catholic versions have seven additional books that are normally not found in non-Catholic bibles.
But we also have the findings at Nag Hammadi, which gives us 52 additional fragments of various scripts which never made it into the Bible, and one translation of a Greek philosopher. They are written in Coptic (akin to Ancient Egyptian) and they have only been made public since 1975. In 2006 The Gospel of Judas was released.
These books, which may or may not be canonical, add a great deal to our understanding of early Christian life, and to Biblical study.
2007-01-30 21:52:31
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answer #1
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answered by jcboyle 5
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The NIV, "new internationalist version", is a re-write of the KJV ("king james version") produced by fundamentally retarded christianazis. It is a version specifically written to demonize and criticize "non-christians" groups (eg. homosexuals) and even to attack other christians (eg. catholics).
The KJV is bad enough, but the NIV is pure hate literature. If you want the "true word of god" (there is no "god", but that's beside the point) then read the classical Greek and Latin versions translated directly into English by *scholars* and not religious people. Such bibles are pre-catholic and DO NOT contain additions made by the catholic church or any subsequent government or religion, nor are they tainted by mistranslations that happen through multiple languages.
These are the oldest versions of the books, so if they are directly translated into English they would be closest to the original "word of the Flying Spaghetti Monster":
The Hebrew Old Testament
Latin Vulgate
Analytical Greek New Testament
The Septuagint
If your response in reading this is to say, "What would an atheist know about the bible?", the answer is "A lot." How can I or other atheists know what to argue against if we don't know what christians believe in or stand for? (This is also why religious arguments against atheists are almost always wrong or false, because the religious don't know what atheists stand for.)
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2007-01-30 21:51:21
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Hi there well your question has the answer in itself. How any one can combine the all version of BIBLE. I mean how you would find the original words and saying. If any people or group of people can combine it that what would be the surity that there were no human error.
So first thing to understand that BIBLE is now changed by the human interfarence thats why some time michionaries feel sorry to explain to others because its human written and every person pick his/her own meanings.
Being a Muslim i feel that QURAN is the latest and newest and true version of all previous books. The prove is that QURAN is same in every single part of a world. even its pronoceation is same. and Quran justify the holy JESUS and the holy MOSES.
Anyways the reply to your question is that if we could make the combined version of BIBLE then further problem will raise to preach it.
Best Regards
Usman
2007-01-30 22:04:02
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answer #3
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answered by Usman 2
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>>>When they say that the bible is "God's living word" incapable of being edited, added to, subtracted from or changed in any way? Wouldn't that make all versions of the bible identical?>>>
No, it would not -- because, remember that the Bible has been translated into modern languages from very ancient languages.
Which, to put it mildly, is not at all an exact science.
That's why there are different translations of the Bible -- which say the same thing, albeit with different vocabulary usage.
It's often hard enough to translate from one modern language to another modern language, without variances of syntax, sentence structure, and even culture serving as obstacles.
Japanese has words, for instance, which do not have clear-cut equivalents in English.
"Irrashaimase," for instance, is a common greeting made to customers by shop staff in Japan. It has no direct English equivalent; it loosely means "welcome to our shop" or "thank you for patronizing us" or whatever.
This is just one example.
So, if this is going on between two MODERN languages, imagine how many translation obstacles there are between ancient Biblical languages and our own modern languages.
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2007-01-30 21:34:07
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Some "bibles" (like the TNIV) have had things purposely added to or taken away from, that is a fact. This was done as a purposeful act of defiance to the Word of God. We wouldn't have freewill if God did not allow us to commit evil. Think about it, what is to stop you from writing up your own Bible?
There is also an inherent difference in the "meaning for meaning" as opposed to the "word for word" translations. Does this change the MESSAGE of the Bible? No, the message is the same: God is real, He loves you, He sent His Son to die for you so that you may be reconciled to Him.
How do you know the frauds from the real thing? That is why we have so much manuscript evidence. Check out the Dead Sea Scrolls sometime. Every year we find MORE and MORE historical records of the scriptures and the message is always the same, the scriptures match from 100 AD to now.
2007-01-30 21:31:37
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answer #5
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answered by Last Ent Wife (RCIA) 7
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Bible is a law book and understanding for different versions change the meaning. All versions are totally different but simular. You must read the history of a particular Bible to understand it better. For example the Living Bible was writen by a father for his children to read, but the man the re-wrote it only had his own understanding of what the verses meant. Also many religions make there own Bibles to fit their particular doctrines they hold to. Jehovah Witnesses have their own Bible, but they will use others. Mormons have many other books but commonly use King James Bible, also many people cannot understand the Old English writting of the Bible so more modern ones leave out the thee's and thou's stuff.
2007-01-30 21:28:57
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answer #6
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answered by sirromo4u 4
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"while they say that the bible is "God's residing be conscious" incapable of being edited, extra to, subtracted from or replaced in any way?" Who says that? The Bible would not say it can't be finished, it merely tells us to not upload to God's be conscious. human beings do it besides, yet they're incorrect. human beings could ask which version of the Bible a quote is from through fact some human beings desire the KJV, and others desire a greater moderen translation. i don't think of there is an significant distinction in the which means of maximum of them.
2016-10-16 08:48:51
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answer #7
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answered by ? 4
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I wanted to have more time to research my answer. I know that as a good Christian I should already have an answer ready but I don't because even though I've been a Christian for a long, long time I am not a good student. Anyway, the King James Bible is the one that is used exclusively when the Bible is ritually desecrated by Freemasons and witches, etc. in rites and ceremonies, because they being acquainted with the powers of darkness know the power inherent in the King James. Satan deceived Eve by revising God's word and causing her to doubt God's word. Today the same thing is going on where people say that yes God's word is infallible, inerrant, and inspired but yet if you ask them if their version is infallible, inerrant and inspired then they'll tell you that there are no versions that are inerrant, infallible and inspired, that the autographs were but all we have today is unreliable copies of the word of God. King James advocates won't say that. We will proclaim the infallibility of God's word to the English speaking people in the King James bible.
2007-01-30 22:51:19
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answer #8
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answered by hisgloryisgreat 6
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Some , older, versions are harder to understand.
But some more modern versions do not convey what the author originally meant as well as the older versions.
As to why this question is asked:
In my experience, there are people among Christians (and everywhere else) that try and find fault with people on whatever they can use.
"OOOh you heretics use the wrong bible" is just one of them.
I suggest for study that people use both an older and a newer translation, or more.
In essence, Gods word is the same, but as meanings of words change (ie. gay from happy to homosexual) so do translations to fit the current meaning of a word.
2007-01-30 21:33:17
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answer #9
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answered by U_S_S_Enterprise 7
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Because Satan has corrupted the bible. The King James Version is recognised as the official word of God translated from the ancient texts. All after that version have been corrupted. The only reason why the bible has been changed is to spread the word to other languages. Not revised like these later versions that are in english as well as the King James Version.
2007-01-30 21:32:13
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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