I asked this question two hours ago but it never appeared for anyone to answer.So, if anyone would like to answer it here is the link:
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=Aq.d3eUh4uglsqhYzDyfD97sy6IX?qid=20070130045205AAmo1bO
2007-01-30 02:07:36 · 3 answers · asked by Tobeornottobe 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Not everything in the bible is true..
2007-01-30 02:15:30 · answer #1 · answered by twinkle sundae 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I partially agree with you. Here is a fuller explanation. Homosexual may be a term coined in the 1800's. So was dinosaur. That being said; that does not mean homosexual and dinosaurs did not exist in Biblical times.
The concept of homosexuals is condemned such as Romans 1:26-27. However, man tends to 'judge' things on what he sees (basically 5 criteria), but God does it on 6 criteria; emphasis on the sixth 1 Samuel 16:7). The 'criteria' are who,what, when, where, how, and why (matter of the heart). Example; (regarding homosexuality; 2 Samuel 1:26).
To God's glory may you receive today a pleasant surprise!!!
2007-01-30 10:29:29 · answer #2 · answered by jefferyspringer57@sbcglobal.net 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because you only find it in modern trasnlations. It's easier to clarify between the different kinds of perversion that way, when it says "sexual immorality". They go to the greek or hebrew and find what's the best current translation for a word, and that just happened to be it.
2007-01-30 11:15:39 · answer #3 · answered by Hey, Ray 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋