Do you think my repetion of the word prior in this sentence is wrong?

Question

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The FIRST PARTY reserves the right to unilaterally terminate this Agreement by giving 15 (fifiteen) calendar days’ prior written notice prior to the effective date of termination of this Agreement, for which the SECOND PARTY does any of the followings:

Answer 1

I would eliminate the first prior. "by giving a minimum of 15 (fifteen) calendar days' notice prior to ..."

That last part is pretty dodgy. You certainly don't want an "s" at the end of "following" and "for which" does not fit in, but not knowing what follows, I shall resist making further suggestions.

Answer 2

It renders the style of the document cumbersome. Well, all legal documents are cumbersome. What about changing the second "prior" to "before" or just leaving aside the first "prior" altogether?

"The FIRST PARTY reserves the right to unilaterally terminate this Agreement by giving 15 (fifteen) calendar days notice prior (or before) the efective date of..."

Answer 3

No, it reffers to 15 days prior to the effective date of the termination notice, which needs to be submitted prior to the agreement termination.

A bit strange because if you're terminating early than it is before the agreed termination date.

Answer 4

I would take out the first prior. You're basically saying they have to give you 15 days notice in writing before the effective date. If that's correct, there is no need for the first prior.

Answer 5

Unless you are trying to confuse someone with "legalese", I'd suggest that you eliminate the first prior.

Answer 6

yes

Answer 7

I think there's nothing wrong grammatically.