This question comes up a lot because people don't realize that there were several different versions of the Old Testament in use when Jesus was alive (there was the Masoretic Text used mostly outside the Holy Land, there was the Septuagint used mostly in Judea and Galilee, and there was the Samaritan version used in Samaria).
Our translations today rely mostly on the Masoretic Text, but the gospel writers used the Septuagint--you can tell by the way they quoted OT verses. Here's the two versions side by side of Isaiah 7:14:
"Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, the young woman is with child, and she will bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." (This is from the Sinai Publishing version, Tel Aviv, of the Masoretic Text.)
"Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive in the womb, and shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name Emmanuel." (This is from the Catholic Septuagint published by Hendrickson.)
Both of them are correct, both of them refer to a "young woman" and both of them refer to a "virgin". That's because the Hebrew word "almah" refers to a young woman of marrying age who is not supposed to be pregnant, a virgin, and a virgin is usually just a young woman, though I suppose older one's were known.
2007-01-29 23:19:23
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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God didn't "allow" the mistake in translation. We're taught by science what a virgin is. If the Scripture says she was a virgin, it doesn't necessarily mean she was a prepubescent girl! It means that she was old enough to know true love, but according to Judaic traditions, had not yet been deflowered, or had premarital relations with Joseph or any other man.
2007-01-30 11:05:29
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answer #2
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answered by bigvol662004 6
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The Text makes it clear that Mary was a Virgin.
2007-01-30 07:14:48
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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GOD and satan are two different beings. You are presupposing that GOD will take away from satan his power on earth. HE will allow satan some power here and take care of those things later. Mary was a virgin and is described accurately there. Those who follow satan will lead you in a changed direction for their own reasons. Read, study, and follow HIS WORD! Have a great day.
Eds
2007-01-30 07:10:01
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answer #4
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answered by Eds 7
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Whether or not the word is 'young girl' or 'virgin' the essential meaning is the same.
In the time before, during and after Jesus Christ (including today), any young unmarried girl would be considered a virgin.
With love in Christ.
2007-01-31 00:36:26
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answer #5
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answered by imacatholic2 7
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Have you ever read Thomas Paine's study of christianity he shows that the so called prophesys about the future were actually refering to the present tense read that whole virgin bit and continue on and you will see this.
2007-01-30 08:07:58
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answer #6
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answered by anon4112 3
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original hebrew txt-mary was a maiden meaning unmarried when translated it was changed to virgin,there are many instances of 'mistranslated' words-eve was made of of adams rib - translation a piece of his side.your 'god' allows many things lets look at world hunger,poverty,wars,incest,genocide,animal cruelty,peodophilia,extinction of animals,poaching,murder,rape is there really a GOD or just humans greed for power and dominance?
2007-01-30 07:21:32
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answer #7
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answered by felicityfrost13 2
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A note from biblical historian John Meier after considering all the data on the historicity of the virgin birth, stated:
"The end result of this survey must remain meager and disappointing to both defenders and opponents of the doctrine of the virginal conception."
Here, Meier has identified the error in focus that Christians have jumped into in observation of Matthew 1:23. Christians want to support the testimony of the Gospel writers by using Isaiah 7:14 as an evidence of the virginity of Mary - that somehow the OT demonstrates that the Christ was foretold to be born of a virgin. However, what we should realize after a full examination of Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew 1:23, is that belief in the virgin birth of Jesus Christ is a matter of faith based on the testimony of the two gospel writers who have gained our trust. Those who view Matthew’s reference to Isaiah 7:14 as evidence of the virginity of Mary are looking in the wrong place for evidential support, and have misunderstood Matthew’s intention by referring to the OT passage. Christians are called to accept the testimony of the gospel writers - not just Matthew, but in Luke we find that it was an angel that said to Mary:
"The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; and for that reason the holy offspring shall be called the Son of God" (Luke 1:35)
No evidence of any kind can possibly confirm this unique event, it is truly a matter of faith which is the "assurance of things hoped for, the conviction of things not seen" (Heb 11:1).
After the final analysis, everything considered in this article should bring one’s understanding of Matthew’s use of Isaiah 7:14 into sharper focus. The Christian focus has often been on the condition of the woman giving birth. Over-zealous evangelists want to focus on that aspect and make it appear to be a rather astounding example of an Old Testament prediction of the Christ in the virginity of His mother. But what is demonstrated here is that kind of approach is off-target. It appears most reasonable that Matthew’s concern is that the son born to Mary is in fulfillment of the name "Immanuel." Matthew, by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, draws us back to Isaiah and shows us that Jesus fulfills in a more direct sense what it means to have "God with us." Matthew’s point identifies by reference who Jesus is and what He will do. The son born in Isaiah’s day was a sign, for Ahaz and the people of Judah, that God was with them, and that God would save them in their circumstance. Matthew draws upon that instance for his context - that in Jesus, "God is with us," and God is going to save through Him. Matthew introduced the comparison in 1:21 by quoting the angel who said, "She will bear a Son, and you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins." He then completes the point in 1:23 by identifying this event of Jesus birth as a most meaningful and significant fulfillment of Isaiah 7:14.
2007-01-30 07:47:42
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answer #8
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answered by Niguayona 4
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Young girl is understood as virgin.
Please remember different culture different time.
It's people like you that scream "The sky is falling" when you do not have the slightest clue what you are talking about.
2007-01-30 07:05:28
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answer #9
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answered by williamzo 5
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no it is right
she is called virgin mary because she got pregnant in jesus christ without even touched by any human being that is why she is called virgin this is written in our holy book (Quraan) and also written in the bible
2007-01-30 07:07:06
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answer #10
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answered by khatora 3
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