2007-01-29 22:34:12 · 12 answers · asked by curious 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Immigration
yes of course............... isn't everyone? ......in actuallality i agree with the previous responses of they were no laws so you can't break something you don't have.......oh_hell
2007-01-29 23:54:28 · answer #1 · answered by oh_hell_imagine_that 4 · 0⤊ 3⤋
He never came to what is now the USA. It's possible that he came to the Caribbean illegally but I doubt any of the tribal lands in the Caribbean where he landed had any laws against outsiders visiting their territories.
Besides, people can always get around immigration laws by mounting an invasion (they can euphemistically call it a liberation). Columbus could always say he came to the Americas to "liberate" the native inhabitants from their tribal rulers and bring them
some more enlightened doctrine from the West (in his case, the East actually) .
It was 500 years too early to use "democracy" as a pretext for the invasion but it was very fashionable to use "Christianity" then. No Spanish invading army ever came without the priests and the cross back in those days.
2007-01-30 06:55:33 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Well, Curious since the USA didn't exist until the signing of the constitution in 1776 and Columbus sailed the ocean blue in 1492, I'd say he obviously didn't break any US laws, did he?
2007-01-30 09:43:04 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Not only were there no immigration laws when columbus arrived but there was also no United States so give up that lame argument.Sates formed together to create this country and people voted in officials who created laws if you dont like them tough cookies
2007-01-30 06:48:13 · answer #4 · answered by JOHN D 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Columbus never set foot in North America, only the Caribbean and South America, so he never was in the "USA".
2007-01-30 08:42:38 · answer #5 · answered by Double 709 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
No - he slipped past Homeland Security when they weren't looking.
Or more to the point...what kind of question is this? There weren't any territorial waters or international waters in 1492 so he could sail pretty much anywhere he wanted to legally.
Whether the natives decided to slaughter him and his crew once the landed - well that was their legal choice as well.
2007-01-30 06:43:11 · answer #6 · answered by Blitzhund 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Since he broke no laws coming, he wasn't here ILLEGALLY, but in any event was not in the US. We used to have no laws, as well (well, except against immigration of prostitutes) when we needed as many people as wanted to come. Things have changed, so our laws have changed. Have the laws of your country stayed the same on immigration since then?
2007-01-30 09:10:02 · answer #7 · answered by DAR 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Of course he was immigrant git if the native americans had built a wall then you wouldn't have the ridiculous insurgency that's going on now.
2007-01-30 06:44:54 · answer #8 · answered by airmonkey1001 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Just as legal as the rest of them at that time.LOL
We're all illegals. Just ask the American Indian
2007-01-30 06:43:38 · answer #9 · answered by Curious 4 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Let me ask you this question, if he was here illegally what law did he break. There were no laws about that at that time, so he broke no law.
2007-01-30 07:02:47 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Hmmmm. Probably.
2007-01-30 06:37:41 · answer #11 · answered by kitty fresh & hissin' crew 6 · 0⤊ 3⤋