I have found it in the "Old Testament" But it only talks of giving in the New Testament not referencing a certain percentage for tithes. Did I miss it. Please enlighten!!
2007-01-29 05:58:20 · 7 answers · asked by tuty29 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It doesn't.
We have the freedom to give as much or as little as we want. As it is written:
"Every man according as he purposeth in his heart, so let him give; not grudgingly, or of necessity: for God loveth a cheerful giver." (II Corinthians 9:7, KJV)
The key is to be cheerful when we give. If we do it out of a sense of duty, or to get something in return, God would prefer if we just kept the cash.
2007-01-29 06:03:18 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Hey I realized that you said NT after I had posted. Sorry. It does not say tithe 10%. It just uses the word tithe 3 times Matt 23:23 Luke 18:12 and Heb 7:5. It is understood to be 10% because that is the definition of the word.
WORD HISTORY:
A tithe is a tenth, etymologically speaking; in fact, tithe is the old ordinal numeral in English. Sound changes in the prehistory of English are responsible for its looking so different from the word ten. Tithe goes back to a prehistoric West Germanic form *tehuntha-, formed from the cardinal numeral *tehun, "ten," and the same ordinal suffix that survives in Modern English as -th. The n disappeared before the th in the West Germanic dialect area that gave rise to English, and eventually yielded the Old English form tothe, "tenth," still not too different from the cardinal numeral ten. But over time, as the former became tithe and the latter ten, and as tithe developed the specialized meaning "a tenth part paid as a tax," it grew harder to perceive a relationship between the two. The result was that speakers of English created a new word for the ordinal, tenth, built with the cardinal numeral ten on the pattern of the other regularly-formed ordinal numerals like sixth or seventh.
Hope this is a better answer for you. Sorry I messed it up the first time.
2007-01-29 14:12:15 · answer #2 · answered by micheletmoore 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In Hebrews chapter 7 it refers you back to Abraham giving 10% of the spoils the got in battle to Melchisedec, king of Salem, priest of the most high God.
But in the rest of the new testament it doesn't give a percentage.
You didn't miss it. It only talks about giving to the Lord. In Acts, the early church gave 100%.
2007-01-29 14:23:24 · answer #3 · answered by Jan P 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It doesn’t talk about giving 10% in the NT. This is because that was part of the Mosaic Law Covenant. Unless you are Jewish, you are not under that law covenant. If you profess Christianity, you are under the New Covenant.
Therefore, the 10 Commandments ( the first of the law covenant) and the other hundreds of laws are no longer are binding on those who profess Christianity.
2007-01-30 21:50:04 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
As far as I know it's only in Malachi. I know because in a large church I attended they made a point of saying this just about every week so now I've had no inclination to go back to church at all. It's hard enough trying to make it as a Christian without having this jammed down your throat furthering your suspicions of how corrupt and messed up some people are.
2007-01-29 14:09:00 · answer #5 · answered by Heywood J Helpaguy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The woman gave two penny's and Jesus said that she has given more than anyone. There is no set amount. I think it was Jacob( I could be wrong) that gave 10%. And, god did not tell him too, he decided that on his own.
2007-01-29 14:05:44 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It doesn't.
2007-01-29 14:05:57 · answer #7 · answered by NONAME 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋