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5 answers

here we go with the wrong answers.

here is the correct answer:
if your wife has hcv as well (which i doubt) she could pose a slight risk (.03%) of transmitting the hcv virus to the unborn child (usually through childbirth) however, the risk decreases to almost no risk at all if a c-cection is done.

a man with hcv who fathers a child does NOT result in the baby having hcv infection!

hcv is BLOOD TO BLOOD only!

true examples:
i am a mother who has two teen boys who are unaffected. i have had hcv since the age of 8. my best friend has two kids, fathered by a man who is hcv positive, they are unaffected as well.

FOLKS. if you dont know the answer, DONT answer!

2007-01-29 04:39:10 · answer #1 · answered by giggling.willow 4 · 1 0

Vertical transmission (mother to child) has a less than 8% chance. Since the mother is not HCV positive, then the baby will not be.

2007-01-30 11:46:48 · answer #2 · answered by cindy1323 6 · 0 0

yes ,but there is a risk of 5% to infect the mother,and if the mother gets infected another 5 % risk of infecting the baby.so you can't be 100 % sure one way or the other.

2007-01-29 04:47:19 · answer #3 · answered by kora 1 · 0 1

i trust if the female is HIV effective, and IF the guy has a lesion or tear contained in the flesh of his penis or an open sore of any form on his lips, or in his mouth, he would properly be contaminated that way. that is harder to transmit HIV from a lady to a guy, than any incorrect way round.

2016-12-03 04:52:03 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No, the baby will be infected too.

2007-01-29 04:31:28 · answer #5 · answered by Tenn Gal 6 · 0 2

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