2007-01-28 02:37:37 · 5 answers · asked by TC 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Medicine
2% solution means 20mg/ml
to get 100 mg would require 5 mls.
2007-01-28 04:40:00 · answer #1 · answered by belfus 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you're looking to dilute 100mg of pure lidocaine to 2% lidocaine, in a solution, you would add 5g of solution.
If you're looking to measure out a dose of 100mg of lidocaine from a 2% base, you would measure out 5g of the solution.
Your question was a bit vague. Hopefully this helps.
Good luck!
2007-01-28 02:49:00 · answer #2 · answered by aaeon 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
2% lidocaine is used for local anesthesia. The dosage you state is for IV push and you would use the IV mixture. See the links below.
2007-01-28 02:49:21 · answer #3 · answered by david42 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
effective that is okay. Desentizing creams and creams marketed to be utilized by utilising men who've subject concerns with untimely ejaculation many times incorporate those substances in low doses. Anal-Eze is composed of benzocaine (i think that is benzocaine). i might say . . . do no longer inject something into your penis -- as long as you place it on the exterior, and not in extensive quantities (do no longer use an entire tube of orajel on the top of your penis, then wrap it in saran wrap for half-hour to allow it to "soak in") decide for it.
2016-11-01 12:13:55 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm glad not to be a patient of yours...
2007-01-28 02:46:29 · answer #5 · answered by Fu Manchu 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋