We bought a house last year (our primary residence) in the fall. We bought about halfway through a six-month property tax cycle. (I don't know how other states are, but in Minnesota, people pay property tax for the first half of the calendar year and the second half of the year.) At the closing, we reimbursed the sellers for our portion of the July-Dec 2006 property tax, which was several hundred dollars. However, besides a line on our closing forms that notes the amount paid to reimburse the sellers for property tax, I have no form that acknowledges what we paid for property taxes. So, are we legally entitled to deduct the property tax we paid? Also, does the government (state or county) need to send us a form, or is the official closing document that states the property tax reimbursed to the seller sufficient for safely itemizing that amount? (Our deductions exceed the standard deduction by several thousand dollars, so we are definitely itemizing.)
2007-01-28
01:08:09
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3 answers
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asked by
Minnesota_Slinger
3
in
Business & Finance
➔ Taxes
➔ United States