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in chapter 4 verses 24-26 who can help me who is it talking about god sought to kill my friend say moses but i,m not sure he has a niv bible that says moses but i have the old king james bible which i think is the right bible all answer will be appriate!!!

2007-01-28 00:31:53 · 8 answers · asked by hunter_tn4 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

8 answers

My Bible Commentary says, "On the way from Midian, Moses received a startling and terrible warning of the Lord's displeasure. An angel appeared to him in a threatening manner, as if he would immediately destroy him. No explanation was given; but Moses remembered that he had disregarded one of God's requirements; yielding to the persuasion of his wife, he had neglected to perform the rite of circumcision upon their youngest son. He had failed to comply with the condition by which his child could be entitled to the blessings of God's covenant with Israel; and such a neglect on the part of their chosen leader could not but lessen the force of the divine precepts upon the people. Zipporah, fearing that her husband would be slain, performed the rite herself, and the angel then permitted Moses to pursue his journey. In his mission to Pharaoh, Moses was to be placed in a position of great peril; his life could be preserved only through the protection of holy angels. But while living in neglect of a known duty, he would not be secure; for he could not be shielded by the angels of God."

You've got to watch out on the NIV, because it is very dangerous in its translation.

2007-01-28 00:44:37 · answer #1 · answered by oh nedla 2 · 0 0

Zipporah or Moses (Ex 4: 25) (NIV) and (NAB)No! I . believe the answer you are looking for is the first born man or beast of Pharaoh's Egypt.. However Zipporah the daughter of Reul and wife of Moses though God was referring to her son so she circumcised him and touched Moses with the foreskin saying "you are a spouse of blood to me". In response to the statement," God came upon Moses and would have killed him". Remember, the number of scribes who wrote this down over years and years and might have been confused themselves. The message is the Lord wants Pharaoh to let his people go. The Lord came across Moses, and then would have killed him (The first born man or beast of Pharaoh's Egypt), yet the message had not yet been delivered to Pharaoh to let the Lord's people go, by both Moses and Aarron (5:1) Then at 12:12 the Lord states he will strike the first born of Egypt "every first born man or beast.
Your friend is using the NIV, I used it also, the NAB and KJV which states God made man to have dominion over the cattle (Gen 1:26), yet 2:5 "there was not a man to till the earth" and at 2:7 "God formed man of the dust". So when was man created. This only shows one can not just read one verse in the Bible and come to a conclusion. Thus the person(s), beast(s) you seek that the God sought to kill has the same.. confusion as to when man was created and it's stated the same be it KJV,NIV or NAB
What color is the sky: blue in the day; black at night or white during a cloud cover--eh?.
So don't be so fast to knock down your friend's NIV unless you have read it and compared it to your "olde King James Version of the Bible, which you think is the right Bible". Remember any version of the Bible ought to be read with some regard for its history and completeness. It's not enough to read a sentence or two and make a statement without searching out what the author(s) inspired by the Holy Spirit is telling us.

2007-01-28 09:56:16 · answer #2 · answered by mypalnow2 2 · 0 0

Scholars have offered many interpretations.
Such interpretations attempt to settle questions as to whether it was Moses’ or the child’s life that was threatened.
It seems that it was the child’s life that was in danger in view of what the law of circumcision states at Genesis 17:14.
Zipporah circumcised the child because she realized what was needed to set matters right.
But there is no way of Scripturally settling such questions with certainty. The literal reading of the ancient Hebrew is veiled in the idioms used nearly 3,500 years ago.

2007-01-28 08:52:46 · answer #3 · answered by Uncle Thesis 7 · 1 0

Scholars have offered many interpretations of this passage, some of these being incorporated into modern Bible translations. (See CC, JB, Kx, La, NE, RS, as well as the German Zürcher Bibel, the Spanish Bover-Cantera and the French Crampon, Lienart, and Segond versions.) Such interpretations attempt to settle questions as to whether it was Moses’ or the child’s life that was threatened, whether Zipporah touched the feet of Moses or the feet of the child or the feet of the angel with the foreskin. They also venture opinions as to why Zipporah said (and to whom she said), “You are a bridegroom of blood to me.”

It seems that it was the child’s life that was in danger in view of what the law of circumcision states at Genesis 17:14; that Zipporah circumcised the child because she realized what was needed to set matters right; that she cast the foreskin at the feet of the angel who was threatening the child’s life to demonstrate her compliance with Jehovah’s law; that Zipporah addressed Jehovah through his representative angel when she exclaimed, “You are a bridegroom of blood to me,” doing so to show her acceptance of a wifely position in the circumcision covenant with Jehovah as the husband.—See Jer 31:32.

But there is no way of Scripturally settling such questions with certainty. The literal reading of the ancient Hebrew in this passage is veiled in the idioms used nearly 3,500 years ago. This is why literal translations (NW, Ro, Yg) and others (AS, KJ, Da, Dy, JP, Mo, Le), including the ancient Greek Septuagint, are not clear on these matters.

Apparently Zipporah returned to visit her parents, for, following the Exodus, Zipporah and her two sons accompanied Jethro back to Moses at the wilderness camp. (Ex 18:1-6) Zipporah’s newly felt presence there apparently provoked Moses’ sister Miriam to jealousy, and she (along with Aaron) seized upon Zipporah’s Cushite background as an excuse for complaint against Moses. (Nu 12:1) This does not indicate that Zipporah had died and Moses had remarried an Ethiopian woman, as is commonly contended, for although “Cushite” usually refers to Ethiopians, it can also embrace those from Arabia.

2007-01-28 08:43:06 · answer #4 · answered by papa G 6 · 1 0

"Along the way at a resting place, the Lord met Moses and sought to kill him,(made him acutely and almost fatally ill). (Now apparently he had failed to circumcise one of his sons, his wife being opposed to it; but seeing his life in such danger) Zipporah took a flint knife and cut off the foreskin of her son and cast it to touch Moses' feet, and said, Surely a husband of blood you are to me! When He let Moses alone (to recover), Zipporah said, A husband of blood are you because of the circumcision."
Exodus 4:24-26
The Amplified Bible

2007-01-28 08:48:55 · answer #5 · answered by heavnbound 4 · 0 0

It refered to Moses's son in and in Hebrew it just says "him"'. always read the entire chapter at least for you to see the verses in context

2007-01-28 08:44:55 · answer #6 · answered by channiek 4 · 0 0

All the Bibles are the same,they just have made it easier for those who had hard time reading i.e. Lo and Behold, now reads look.

2007-01-28 08:43:56 · answer #7 · answered by gwhiz1052 7 · 0 0

Please specific your explaination and question... I don't understand much.

2007-01-28 08:40:37 · answer #8 · answered by Khamirul Bin Mataree 5 · 0 1

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