God is unsearchable.
(Good on here isn't it)?
So you've found a 'few' discrepancies in just one ? of the bibles! Join the club, if its answers your looking for you'll get them here, trouble is they will all differ and have only one thing in common, and that is, its all a complete load of BS.
Do you know who wrote the gospels, no neither do all these Christians, what we all know for certain is that they were not written by Matthew Mark Luke or John.
Good luck with your search for some sort of logic, you have no chance, been there done that.
2007-01-27 18:16:36
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answer #1
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answered by budding author 7
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Some say Matthew gave Joseph's line while Luke gave Mary's. Others think the difference was between royal line (Joseph's) and a physical line (Mary's). Still, others see the variation as the result of at least two levirate marriages (where a man without sons was included in the list because his widow had children in his name by his brother (ex. see the book of Ruth). Probably a combination of factors is at work here. The unique thing is that Luke's list goes back to Adam which shows that Jesus came for ALL humanity.
2007-01-28 01:38:48
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answer #2
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answered by Mandy S 2
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Mathew gives the line of Joseph - according to Jewish tradition giving the geaology of the father (in this case "step father") while Luke gives the geaology of Mary, the human bloodline that Jesus came from.
Matthew 1:16 (NLT)
Jacob was the father of Joseph, the husband of Mary.
Mary was the mother of Jesus, who is called the Messiah.
Luke 3:23 (NLT)
...Jesus was known as the son of Joseph.
Joseph was the son of Heli.
2007-01-28 01:38:29
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answer #3
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answered by Tony S 2
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at the time when the gospels were wrote, people did not think Jesus was born of a virgin birth. Josesph, is of the blood-line of King David, making Jesus also blood related. Religiously, the church didn't start the virgin birth till about A.D. 325 at the Council of Nicea. And isn't it odd that the gospels of Luke and John do not mention Christ's origins and birth?
2007-01-28 01:34:58
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answer #4
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answered by Aaron N 2
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The genealogy in Matt. is of Joseph "as by law" meaning in-laws.
The genealogy in Luke is of Mary. She descended from both Levi and Judah thus Christ combines the priesthood and the kingship.
2007-01-28 01:29:30
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answer #5
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answered by David P 3
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Matthew liked tidy sets. There are 3 sets of 14 in his geneology. In Hebrew "David" comes out to the # 14.
Oops - there are only 13 names in set # 3 - unless one counts Mary - which was set up by listing the other Key women. Matthew writes for the Jewish population, which need such a lineal geneology.
Luke writes for the gentile population.
2007-01-28 02:47:33
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answer #6
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answered by Joe Cool 6
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One is just more detailed than the other as far as genealogies are concerned. Further Mary was a cousin of Joseph so her genealogy is the same as Joseph's.
2007-01-28 01:35:59
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answer #7
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answered by saintrose 6
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One is Mary's and the other is Joseph's.
Both are understandable, but are not meant to be 100% complete.
On his mother's side, Jesus comes from the line of priests and the line of of kings.
That's quite appropriate , and accurate enough for me.
2007-01-28 01:48:46
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Nice B-Nizzle but Jesus is the son of GOD. Not man. Hence the name the Son of God.
2007-01-28 01:29:49
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answer #9
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answered by Catherine H 2
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They do agree and with the virgin birth. That was easy. I thought you atheists were supposed to be on the intelligent side of the house.
2007-01-28 01:28:26
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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