2007-01-27 15:05:04 · 5 answers · asked by WWTSD? 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
He wasn't 'a' son of man. He was THE Son of man, as He Himself said. In this case, He wasn't denying His own divinity, but rather, He was identifying with the human race.
He was also establishing the fact that He had a real human body -- an issue that would factor heavily in several heresies later on.
2007-01-27 15:13:36 · answer #1 · answered by Wolfeblayde 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Because it is a direct reference to Daniel 7:13-14
"In my vision at night I looked and there before me was one like a son of man coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. He was given authority, glory, and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed."
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Jesus said, "Do you believe in the Son of Man?"
"Who is he, sir?" the man asked, "Tell me so that I may believe in him."
Jesus said, "You have now seen him; in fact, he is the one speaking with you."
Then the man said, "Lord I believe," and he worshiped him. (John 9:35-38)
2007-01-27 23:26:16 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because He was and is BOTH. His Father is divine. His mother is human. Therefore He is both human and divine. He is the Son of God, and the Son of man, that is to say, a human parent.
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2007-01-27 23:39:49 · answer #3 · answered by PaulCyp 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Son of man is a hebreic term that means messiah.
2007-01-28 02:24:48 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because he was God incarnate. God in hu"man" form!
2007-01-27 23:09:34 · answer #5 · answered by Boppysgirl 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋